CRCST Chapter 22 Practice Test Questions Answers

Last Updated on April 1, 2025

CRCST Chapter 22 Practice Test Questions Answers quiz on Safety for Sterile Processing. Try our free Certified Registered Central Service Technician (CRCST) Chapter 22 Multiple-choice questions answer. This chapter explains the principles, methods, and best practices for managing inventory within a healthcare Central Service (CS) department.

Chapter 22: Safety for Sterile Processing

Workplace Safety Practices
Personal Protective Equipment
Hazardous Materials Handling

This sample test consists of 30 questions. There is no time limit, so you can practice as much as possible.

CRCST Chapter 22 Practice Test

CRCST Chapter 22 Safety for Sterile Processing

CRCST Practice Test
Chapter 22: Safety for Sterile Processing
Total Items: 30
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1) In the context of ETO exposure, what does “action level” (AL) mean?

A) The average concentration of ETO in the air over an eight-hour shift

B) The concentration of airborne ETO at which immediate corrective measures must be implemented

C) The maximum level of ETO allowed during equipment maintenance

D) The legal limit for the amount of ETO that can be stored

2) Which chemical discussed in this section has both a permissible exposure limit (PEL) of 1 ppm and specific action level requirements?

A) Ethylene Oxide (ETO)

B) Glutaholderide

C) Hydrogen Peroxide (H₂O₂)

D) Ozone (O₃)

3) In surgical service areas, CS technicians should be aware of additional hazards. Which of the following is NOT one of those hazards?

A) Chemicals used during procedures

B) X-ray equipment

C) Lasers

D) Routine paperwork

4) What is the best initial response if a CS technician encounters a cart that is too heavy to safely move?

A) Push forward quickly to gain momentum

B) Tilt the cart to redistribute weight

C) Maneuver the cart diagonally through tight spaces

D) Unload some items to reduce the cart’s weight

5) What factor is emphasized as critical for maintaining a culture of safety within the facility?

A) Employee preparedness and prompt reporting of unsafe conditio

B) Posting safety posters without further training

C) Limiting safety training to new employees only

D) Relying solely on management to implement safety protocols

6) Employee training in CS departments should include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Techniques for increasing production speed regardless of safety

B) Proper use of personal protective equipment (PPE)

C) Emergency spill procedures and disaster/fire plans

D) Hazard communication and reading Safety Data Sheets (SDS)

7) Which of the following is NOT one of the three elements of the fire triangle as explained in the transcript?

A) Source of ignition

B) Combustible substance

C) Cooling agent

D) Source of oxygen

8) For the chemical used as a high-level disinfectant in CS (glutaholderide), what ceiling value does the ACGIH recommend?

A) 0.5 parts per million

B) 1.0 parts per million

C) 0.05 parts per million

D) 0.2 parts per million

9) What is a key safety tip when working at a clerical workstation to avoid tripping hazards?

A) Open multiple drawers simultaneously for quick access

B) Keep bottom drawers closed when not in use

C) Use volatile cabinets for faster retrieval

D) Store all items on high shelves

10) What is the purpose of performing preventative maintenance (PM) on central service equipment?

A) To eliminate the need for equipment inspections

B) To update the facility’s disaster plan

C) To reduce the amount of PPE needed

D) To ensure optimal operation and safety of the equipment

11) Which safety feature is incorporated in ETO sterilizers to minimize the risk of chemical exposure if a malfunction occurs during the cycle?

A) Manual override controls for immediate shutdown

B) Negative pressure airflow and an automatic lock-down until aeration is complete

C) Built-in sprinkler system

D) Extra insulation around the sterilizer chamber

12) How is workplace violence defined in this transcript?

A) A conflict that occurs exclusively outside the work area

B) Only physical assaults on employees

C) Any act or threat of physical violence, harassment, or intimidation occurring at the work site

D) Verbal disagreements between coworkers

13) What is the main function of an incident command system (ICS) in a healthcare facility’s disaster plan?

A) To design the layout of workstations

B) To perform routine equipment maintenance

C) To coordinate and control emergency response activities

D) To handle only internal facility issues

14) Which strategy is recommended to minimize combustible loads in healthcare facilities?

A) Increase the number of single-use disposable items

B) Mix hazardous and non-hazardous waste to dilute the combustible material

C) Store trash and single-use items in covered, non-combustible containers

D) Place all supplies on high shelves regardless of use frequency

15) Which of the following is an example of a physical hazard in the CS department?

A) Wet floors leading to slips and falls

B) Airborne pathogens

C) Bloodborne pathogens in used sharps containers

D) Exposure to sterilant chemicals

16) When dealing with sharps in any CS work area, which of the following practices is most important to prevent injuries?

A) Rinsing sharps briefly under running water

B) Handling multiple sharp instruments simultaneously

C) Disassembling scalpel blades by hand

D) Placing disposable sharps in approved sharps containers

17) Which of the following recommendations helps reduce physical strain at a clerical workstation?

A) Using chairs that offer proper support

B) Placing frequently used items within easy reach

C) All of the above

D) Installing fatigue-relieving floor mats in areas where employees stand

18) Which of the following best defines “risk management” in a Central Service (CS) department?

A) A process for reviewing disciplinary protocols in the facility

B) A procedure for storing hazardous chemicals

C) A method to remove workplace hazards immediately

D) A method to assess risks and develop programs to reduce potential losses

19) According to OSHA’s “Employee Right to Know” regulations, which of the following must be readily available to employees working with hazardous substances?

A) A Safety Assessment Application

B) A Federal Recall Authorization Form

C) A Material Disposal and Recall Notice

D) A Safety Data Sheet (SDS)

20) Which of the following actions can help minimize ergonomic injuries for CS technicians?

A) Adjusting the work environment and using proper body mechanics

B) Performing repetitive tasks without breaks

C) Wearing extra layers of clothing at all times

D) Lifting heavy trays without bending the knees

21) What does the term “combustible loading” refer to?

A) The rate at which fire spreads in a room

B) The concentration of oxygen required to start a fire

C) The maximum temperature at which a substance burns

D) The weight of combustible materials per square foot of area

22) In the decontamination area, which type of hazard is most frequently encountered due to the presence of contaminated instruments?

A) Physical hazards

B) Electrical hazards

C) Biological hazards

D) Ergonomic hazards

23) What is the primary purpose of a department’s hazardous materials management program?

A) To protect employees by establishing proper handling, labeling, and disposal guidelines

B) To ensure all chemicals are disposed of in regular trash

C) To reduce the use of all cleaning agents in the department

D) To eliminate the need for personal protective equipment

24) Which scenario best describes an internal disaster as defined in the transcript?

A) An earthquake causing widespread patient injury

B) A large influx of patients due to an external event

C) A hazardous chemical spill that affects departmental operations

D) A hurricane impacting external infrastructure

25) What is the primary purpose of OSHA’s permissible exposure limits (PELs) as described in this section?

A) To ensure employees work extra hours

B) To define acceptable noise levels in the workplace

C) To prevent potential health hazards by limiting chemical exposures

D) To set the production targets in a facility

26) When handling compressed gas cylinders, which of the following is a mandatory safety precaution?

A) Roll or drag cylinders for quicker transport

B) Remove the cover cap to verify the gas type before transport

C) Store empty cylinders mixed with full ones

D) Always secure cylinders in an upright position using a holder, strap, or chain

27) In the event of an employee accident or injury, what is the immediate action required?

A) Wait until the end of the shift before reporting

B) Document the incident and report it immediately to the appropriate administrative personnel

C) Only report if the injury is severe

D) Call a coworker to handle the paperwork later

28) According to OSHA’s standards mentioned, what is the short-term exposure limit (STEL) for ethylene oxide (ETO)?

A) 1 part per million

B) 10 parts per million

C) 2 parts per million

D) 5 parts per million

29) What are the three main types of occupational hazards identified in the CS department?

A) Biological, thermal, and routine

B) Fire, slips/falls, and sharps

C) Chemical, ergonomic, and mechanical

D) Physical, biological, and chemical

30) Which term describes a container that is filled from a primary container or contains a diluted chemical solution?

A) Hazardous container

B) Secondary container

C) Tertiary container

D) Modified container

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