AP Gov UNIT 5 Political Participation Practice Test

AP Government and Politics Exam: UNIT 5 Political Participation Practice Test. This comprehensive practice test is designed to assess your understanding of Unit 5 in the AP Government and Politics course, which focuses on Political Participation, Campaigns, Elections, Voting, Political Parties, Interest Groups, and the Mass Media. This test consists of 33 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) crafted by an expert in the subject matter.

The questions cover key concepts, theories, and examples related to various aspects of political participation, such as the role and impact of campaigns, elections, voting behavior, political parties, interest groups, and the mass media.

AP Gov UNIT 5 Political Participation Practice Test

By taking this practice test, you will gain a better understanding of your current knowledge of the topic and identify areas that may require further study. This test will also help you familiarize yourself with the types of questions you can expect on the actual AP Government and Politics exam.

Unit 5 - Practice Test

UNIT 5 AP Government and Politics Practice Test

AP Government and Politics Practice Test
UNIT 5 Political Participation CHAPTER 13 Campaigns, Elections, and Voting CHAPTER 14 Political Parties CHAPTER 15 Interest Groups and the Mass Media
Total Items: 33
Section: 1 - Multiple Choice
Time Limit: N/A

1 / 33

In 1976, the Supreme Court ruled that spending limits established by the Federal Election Campaign Act were unconstitutional. Which Supreme Court case validated this ruling?

(A) U.S. v. Nixon

(B) Gibbons v. Ogden

(D) McCulloch v. Maryland

2 / 33

The Federal Election Campaign Act of 1971

(A) limited the number of candidates who could run for any one office

(B) restricted the amount of campaign funds that could be spent on a single election

(D) restricted the amount of campaign contributions to $400 million for the major political parties

3 / 33

The electoral college, along with the popular vote of the people, determines the winner of a presidential election. What majority of the electoral vote is needed in order to be declared the winner?

(A) 538

(B) 435

(D) 270

4 / 33

Which of the following is a false statement?

(A) Most candidates running for president of the United States make formal announcements as to the seeking of their party’s nomination.

(B) After the national convention, candidates begin campaigning for the general election.

(C) The purpose of a national nominating convention is to select a party’s presidential candidate and write a party platform.

(D) Presidential primaries provide little help for the American voter in determining a party’s political candidate.

5 / 33

Which of the following is NOT true concerning the expansion of suffrage in the United States?

(A) Religious qualifications and property owner ship requirements were abolished after the Civil War.

(B) The Fifteenth Amendment eliminated race disqualifications in voting.

(D) The Twenty-Sixth Amendment lowered the voting age in federal elections to 18.

6 / 33

Which of the following primaries is used by the fewest number of states?

(A) closed primary

(B) open primary

(D) presidential preference primary

7 / 33

Which of the following is a drawback of modern campaigns?

(A) increased use of social media

(B) rising campaign costs

(D) decreasing campaign costs

8 / 33

Which of the following best defines a recall?

(A) Recall allows voters to petition proposed issues presented before them

(B) Recall is a form of direct primary.

(D) Recall is a special election allowing the voters to remove public officials from office before the end of their term.

9 / 33

What is the most common form of political participation in America?

(A) voting

(B) contributing money for candidates

(D) running for office

10 / 33

Which of the following would NOT be a form of political participation?

(A) voting in elections

(B) contacting public officials

(D) forming an interest group

11 / 33

Which of the following is an accurate statement about the information on the line graph?

(A) The greatest decrease in media usage was in the use of the radio.

(B) The greatest increase in media usage was in the use of newspapers.

(D) The greatest decrease in media usage was in the use of newspapers.

12 / 33

Those media executives and news editors who decide which events to present and how to present the news are called

(A) content regulators

(B) gatekeepers

(D) telecommunication regulators

13 / 33

Which of the following has NOT been an important function in the role of the mass media?

(A) directing government

(B) agenda setting

(D) shaping public opinion

14 / 33

In the history of radio as a mode of mass media, which American president was first to make the medium a regular feature of his administration as a method of informing the people?

(A) Ronald Reagan

(B) Franklin Roosevelt

(D) George H. W. Bush

15 / 33

Which is true of government regulation of the media?

(A) Government regulation of the media affects the print media more than the broadcast media.

(B) Structural regulations deal with issues affecting the organization of broadcasting companies.

(D) The Federal Communications Commission is restricted to the regulation of interstate commerce.

16 / 33

Which of the following is true regarding the regulation of lobbying?

(A) The Federal Regulation of Lobbying Act was directed at those who tried to influence members of the executive branch.

(B) The first major attempt to regulate lobbying came during the Progressive Era, in the early years of the 20th century

(D) Both the Federal Regulation of Lobbying Act and the Lobbying Disclosure Act required lobbyists to register

17 / 33

A method of lobbying by which interest group members and others outside the organization write letters, send telegrams, and make telephone calls to influence policymakers is known as

(A) litigation lobbying

(B) grassroots lobbying

(D) coalition lobbying

18 / 33

n example of a public interest group is

(A) the League of Women Voters

(B) the American Association of Retired Persons

(D) the National Council of Churches

19 / 33

An example of an interest group that would promote a specific cause is

(A) the National Grange

(B) the Teamsters Union

(D) the American Bar Association

20 / 33

Which of the following is NOT a function of an interest group?

(A) represent a broad range of interests

(B) raise awareness and stimulate interest in public affairs

(D) provide information to the government

21 / 33

How does an interest group differ from a political party?

(A) Interest groups often support political candidates for office.

(B) Membership in an interest group is nonrestrictive.

(D) Interest groups control government.

22 / 33

Which of the following best describes presidential campaign receipts as shown in the graph?

Democrats have raised more money in each election cycle than Republicans.

Republicans have not increased the amount of money raised since 2004.

The party that raises the largest amount of money wins the election

Democrats have more than doubled the amount of money raised since 2004.

23 / 33

The future of political parties in the United States is uncertain due to

(A) decline of third-party challenges

(B) perceived differences between the parties

(D) lack of party reform

24 / 33

The shifting of voting patterns and formation of new coalitions of party supporters is known as

(A) alignment

(B) realignment

(D) dealignment

25 / 33

Which of the following best describes the structure and organization of a political party?

(A) They are close-knit and very organized.

(B) They are highly decentralized or fragmented.

(D) The president plays no role in party leadership after his election.

26 / 33

Membership in an American political party is voluntary and based on party identification. Which of the following factors influence party identification?

(A) education

(B) cost of membership

(D) national law

27 / 33

Which of the following best describes state party organizations?

(A) They are independent of the national party.

(B) They are subject to their own jurisdiction according to party doctrines.

(D) Their funding has been affected by campaign reform law.

28 / 33

The national convention serves what major purpose for a political party?

(A) to allow the people to direct the work of the national committee through a system of national participation

(B) to establish the rules of party campaigning

(D) to manage the political party’s business by the vote of party constituents

29 / 33

Minor parties seldom win elections at the national level. Which of the following best describes a factor that prevents minor parties from winning elections?

(A) gridlock

(B) lack of political efficacy

(D) winner-take-all electoral system

30 / 33

The Republican and Democratic parties have dominated the political scene throughout American history. Minor parties have often surfaced to fill the void left by the major parties. A splinter party can best be characterized by

(A) the fact that it is the result of a revolt within a major party

(B) the fact that it is usually built around the working-class American

(D) its presence during times of economic discontent

31 / 33

Which of the following is an accurate statement about the information in the line graph?

(A) Those 65 and older are more likely to vote than those 45 to 64.

(B) The only age group to see a voter increase since 2012 was the 30 to 44 age group

(D) Since 2000, all age groups have seen an increase in voter turnout.

32 / 33

Which of the following best describes a multiparty system?

(A) Membership in the party of choice is not generally voluntary.

(B) There is usually a consensus of agreement as to basic principles of government

(D) Parties tend to avoid extreme ideologies.

33 / 33

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of a political party?

(A) organize the government

(B) represent special interests

(D) educate voters

Your score is

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