MBLEx Kinesiology Practice Test 2024 [UPDATED]

Massage & Bodywork Licensing Examination – FSMTB MBLEx Kinesiology Practice Test 2024 (Massage Therapy Exams like ABMP, NCBTMB, AMTA Massage & Bodywork Licensing Examination (MBLEx)). Free Kinesiology practice test question answers help you prepare for the MBLEx exam and any national Massage Therapies certificate licensing exam.

Topics covered include the Components and characteristics of muscles and muscle contractions, their locations and attachment, and Joint structure and function. Our MBLEx Anatomy and Physiology practice test is free and consists of 30 multiple-choice questions with explanations.

Note: The Actual full-length MBLEx Exam Kinesiology section consists of 12% questions with the following topics.

A. Skeletal muscle components & Characteristics
B. Concepts of skeletal muscle contractions
C. Proprioceptors
D. Skeletal muscle locations, attachments (origins, insertions), & actions
E. Joint structure and function
F. Range of motion
• Active
• Passive
• Resisted

MBLEx Kinesiology Practice Test 2024

The following Kinesiology question answers are just sample tests, not actual test questions. Our MBLEx Kinesiology Practice Test is designed to test your knowledge and learn something new with the help of this quiz. You can check your score and correct answers at the end of the Kinesiology quiz.

Test Name	Massage & Bodywork Licensing Examination (MBLEx)
Administrated by	Federation Of State Massage Therapy Boards (FSMTB)
Purpose	Massage Therapy Exam Prep
Practice Test Type	MBLEx Kinesiology Practice Test 1
Total Question	30
Type of Question	Multiple-Choice (Quiz)
Answers Availability	Yes
Printable PDF	coming soon

Q1. Which of the following is a characteristic of skeletal muscle?

(A) Involuntary control
(B) Striated appearance
(C) Found in the walls of hollow organs
(D) Non-striated appearance

View Answer

Answer: (B) Striated appearance
Explanation: Skeletal muscle is characterized by a striated appearance and is under voluntary control.

Q2. What is the basic functional unit of a skeletal muscle fiber?

(A) Myofibril
(B) Sarcomere
(C) Actin
(D) Myosin

View Answer

Answer: (B) Sarcomere
Explanation: The sarcomere is the basic functional unit of a muscle fiber, consisting of actin and myosin filaments.

Q3. During muscle contraction, which ion is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum to enable actin and myosin interaction?

(A) Sodium
(B) Potassium
(C) Calcium
(D) Magnesium

View Answer

Answer: (C) Calcium
Explanation: Calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, allowing actin and myosin to interact and cause muscle contraction.

Q4. Which type of proprioceptor is located in the muscle belly and detects changes in muscle length?

(A) Golgi tendon organ
(B) Muscle spindle
(C) Pacinian corpuscle
(D) Ruffini ending

View Answer

Answer: (B) Muscle spindle
Explanation: Muscle spindles are proprioceptors located in the muscle belly that detect changes in muscle length and initiate reflexes to maintain muscle tone.

Q5. The biceps brachii muscle originates from which of the following locations?

(A) Coracoid process and supraglenoid tubercle of the scapula
(B) Acromion and spine of the scapula
(C) Lateral epicondyle of the humerus
(D) Medial epicondyle of the humerus

View Answer

Answer: (A) Coracoid process and supraglenoid tubercle of the scapula
Explanation: The biceps brachii originates from the coracoid process and the supraglenoid tubercle of the scapula.

Q6. Which of the following joints is classified as a ball-and-socket joint?

(A) Elbow joint
(B) Hip joint
(C) Knee joint
(D) Ankle joint

View Answer

Answer: (B) Hip joint
Explanation: The hip joint is a ball-and-socket joint, allowing for a wide range of motion in multiple directions.

Q7. What is the primary function of the rotator cuff muscles?

(A) Flexion of the elbow
(B) Extension of the knee
(C) Stabilization of the shoulder joint
(D) Plantar flexion of the foot

View Answer

Answer: (C) Stabilization of the shoulder joint
Explanation: The rotator cuff muscles stabilize the shoulder joint and allow for rotational movements of the arm.

Q8. Which muscle is responsible for the dorsiflexion of the foot?

(A) Gastrocnemius
(B) Soleus
(C) Tibialis anterior
(D) Peroneus longus

View Answer

Answer: (C) Tibialis anterior
Explanation: The tibialis anterior muscle is responsible for dorsiflexing the foot.

Q9. The insertion point of the triceps brachii muscle is located on which bone?

(A) Radius
(B) Ulna
(C) Humerus
(D) Scapula

View Answer

Answer: (B) Ulna
Explanation: The triceps brachii inserts on the olecranon process of the ulna.

Q10. During a concentric muscle contraction, what happens to the muscle length?

(A) It shortens
(B) It lengthens
(C) It stays the same
(D) It rotates

View Answer

Answer: (A) It shortens
Explanation: During a concentric contraction, the muscle shortens as it generates force.

Q11. Which proprioceptor is located in tendons and detects tension to prevent muscle damage?

(A) Golgi tendon organ
(B) Muscle spindle
(C) Ruffini ending
(D) Pacinian corpuscle

View Answer

Answer: (A) Golgi tendon organ
Explanation: The Golgi tendon organ is located in tendons and detects tension to prevent muscle damage by inhibiting muscle contraction.

Q12. The deltoid muscle is responsible for which action at the shoulder joint?

(A) Flexion
(B) Extension
(C) Abduction
(D) Adduction

View Answer

Answer: (C) Abduction
Explanation: The deltoid muscle is primarily responsible for abducting the arm at the shoulder joint.

Q13. Which structure in the knee joint acts as a shock absorber and provides stability?

(A) Meniscus
(B) Ligament
(C) Tendon
(D) Bursa

View Answer

Answer: (A) Meniscus
Explanation: The meniscus is a C-shaped cartilage in the knee joint that acts as a shock absorber and provides stability.

Q14. Passive range of motion exercises are typically performed by:

(A) The client actively moving their joint
(B) The therapist moving the client’s joint
(C) The client using resistance bands
(D) The client holding a static position

View Answer

Answer: (B) The therapist moving the client’s joint
Explanation: Passive range of motion exercises are performed by the therapist moving the client’s joint without the client’s active involvement.

Q15. Which muscle group is primarily involved in knee extension?

(A) Hamstrings
(B) Quadriceps
(C) Gluteals
(D) Calves

View Answer

Answer: (B) Quadriceps
Explanation: The quadriceps muscle group, located on the front of the thigh, is primarily responsible for extending the knee.

Q16. What is the origin of the pectoralis major muscle?

(A) Clavicle, sternum, and costal cartilages of ribs 1-6
(B) Scapula and humerus
(C) Ribs 2-5 and vertebrae T1-T4
(D) Iliac crest and sacrum

View Answer

Answer: (A) Clavicle, sternum, and costal cartilages of ribs 1-6
Explanation: The pectoralis major originates from the clavicle, sternum, and costal cartilages of ribs 1-6.

Q17. Resisted range of motion exercises involve:

(A) The client moving their joint without resistance
(B) The therapist moving the client’s joint
(C) The client moving their joint against resistance
(D) The client holding a static position

View Answer

Answer: (C) The client moving their joint against resistance
Explanation: Resisted range of motion exercises involve the client moving their joint against resistance, such as weights or resistance bands.

Q18. The insertion of the rectus femoris muscle is located on which bone?

(A) Femur
(B) Tibia
(C) Fibula
(D) Patella

View Answer

Answer: (B) Tibia
Explanation: The rectus femoris muscle inserts on the tibia via the patellar ligament.

Q19. Which type of joint allows for the greatest range of motion?

(A) Hinge joint
(B) Pivot joint
(C) Ball-and-socket joint
(D) Gliding joint

View Answer

Answer: (C) Ball-and-socket joint
Explanation: Ball-and-socket joints, such as the hip and shoulder joints, allow for the greatest range of motion in multiple directions.

Q20. Which proprioceptor is responsible for detecting changes in muscle tension and preventing excessive contraction?

(A) Muscle spindle
(B) Golgi tendon organ
(C) Ruffini ending
(D) Pacinian corpuscle

View Answer

Answer: (B) Golgi tendon organ
Explanation: The Golgi tendon organ detects changes in muscle tension and prevents excessive contraction by triggering muscle relaxation.

Q21. The hamstring muscles are primarily responsible for which action at the hip joint?

(A) Flexion
(B) Extension
(C) Abduction
(D) Adduction

View Answer

Answer: (B) Extension
Explanation: The hamstring muscles are primarily responsible for extending the hip joint.

Q22. Active range of motion exercises are performed by:

(A) The client moving their joint without assistance
(B) The therapist moving the client’s joint
(C) The client using resistance bands
(D) The client holding a static position

View Answer

Answer: (A) The client moving their joint without assistance
Explanation: Active range of motion exercises are performed by the client moving their joint without assistance from the therapist.

Q23. The insertion point of the gluteus maximus muscle is located on which bone?

(A) Femur
(B) Tibia
(C) Fibula
(D) Ilium

View Answer

Answer: (A) Femur
Explanation: The gluteus maximus muscle inserts on the femur and the iliotibial tract.

Q24. Which joint structure provides cushioning and reduces friction between bones?

(A) Ligament
(B) Tendon
(C) Bursa
(D) Meniscus

View Answer

Answer: (C) Bursa
Explanation: A bursa is a fluid-filled sac that provides cushioning and reduces friction between bones, tendons, and muscles.

Q25. Which muscle is responsible for plantar flexion of the foot?

(A) Tibialis anterior
(B) Gastrocnemius
(C) Soleus
(D) Peroneus longus

View Answer

Answer: (B) Gastrocnemius
Explanation: The gastrocnemius muscle, along with the soleus, is responsible for plantar flexion of the foot.

Q26. The biceps femoris muscle is part of which muscle group?

(A) Quadriceps
(B) Hamstrings
(C) Gluteals
(D) Calves

View Answer

Answer: (B) Hamstrings
Explanation: The biceps femoris muscle is part of the hamstring group, which also includes the semitendinosus and semimembranosus muscles.

Q27. Which of the following is a pivot joint?

(A) Shoulder joint
(B) Elbow joint
(C) Atlantoaxial joint (between the first and second cervical vertebrae)
(D) Hip joint

View Answer

Answer: (C) Atlantoaxial joint (between the first and second cervical vertebrae)
Explanation: The atlantoaxial joint is a pivot joint that allows for rotation of the head.

Q28. Which muscle attaches to the iliotibial band and assists in hip abduction?

(A) Gluteus maximus
(B) Tensor fasciae latae
(C) Adductor longus
(D) Sartorius

View Answer

Answer: (B) Tensor fasciae latae
Explanation: The tensor fasciae latae muscle attaches to the iliotibial band and assists in hip abduction and medial rotation.

Q29. Which muscle is involved in flexion of the hip and extension of the knee?

(A) Rectus femoris
(B) Biceps femoris
(C) Gluteus medius
(D) Sartorius

View Answer

Answer: (A) Rectus femoris
Explanation: The rectus femoris muscle is involved in flexion of the hip and extension of the knee, making it a unique muscle that crosses two joints.

Q30. Which muscle is located in the posterior compartment of the leg and is responsible for plantar flexion and knee flexion?

(A) Gastrocnemius
(B) Tibialis posterior
(C) Soleus
(D) Peroneus brevis

View Answer

Answer: (A) Gastrocnemius
Explanation: The gastrocnemius muscle is located in the posterior compartment of the leg and is responsible for both plantar flexion of the foot and flexion of the knee.

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