VTNE Diagnostic Imaging Practice Test Questions Answers

Last Updated on March 8, 2025

VTNE Diagnostic Imaging Practice Test Questions Answers 2025. Diagnostic imaging questions are another type of question on the VTNE. This group of questions makes up about 6 percent (9 items) of the exam.

The diagnostic imaging questions on the VTNE are designed to test your knowledge of the various forms of diagnostic imaging, the methods and techniques for using diagnostic imaging devices, X-ray technology, X-ray processing and development techniques, quality assurance techniques, maintenance and safety protocols, positioning techniques, and more.

Sometimes, a simple physical examination may not be enough for a veterinarian to accurately determine what is wrong with a sick or injured patient. When they need to get a closer look at what is happening inside their patients, technicians frequently use diagnostic imaging tools such as X-rays, MRIs, and ultrasounds to help them formulate proper diagnoses.

VTNE Diagnostic Imaging Practice Test

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VTNE Diagnostic Imaging Practice Test

VTNE Diagnostic Imaging Practice Test
Total Items: 25
Test Ducation: N/A

Diagnostic imaging questions may ask you to correctly identify a piece of equipment or an imaging technique based on a given definition or scenario. You may also find questions that ask you to select the correct statement from a series of incorrect statements or to choose the incorrect statement from a series of correct statements. The multiple-choice items are generally formatted as questions, incomplete statements, or scenarios.

1 / 25

1) Dorsoventral is a directional term that indicates an X–ray that enters from the:

A) Dorsal aspect of the hind limb and exits at the plantar aspect

B) Back and exits through the abdomen

C) Dorsal aspect of the forelimb and exits at the palmar aspect

D) Tail and exits through the head

2 / 25

2) In nuclear scintigraphy, the administration of a radiopharmaceutical primarily allows visualization of:

A) Soft tissue contrast

B) Organ function and metabolism

C) Vascular anatomy

D) Bone structure

3 / 25

3) What is the primary reason for collimation during X–ray exposure?

A) To speed up film processing

B) To allow simultaneous imaging of multiple patients

C) To increase the contrast of the image

D) To reduce patient dose and improve image quality by limiting the beam size

4 / 25

4) After soaking in the developer, the next step in developing a radiograph is the:

A) Wash bath

B) Rinse bath

C) Dryer

D) Fixer

5 / 25

5) Which term describes the inherent graininess or speckled appearance seen on radiographs, especially at low exposure levels?

A) Radiographic mottle

B) Penumbra

C) Quantum mottle

D) Structure mottle

6 / 25

6) Which type of ultrasound artifact occurs when sound is completely reflected or absorbed by an object?

A) Reverberation

B) Mirror image

C) Refraction

D) Acoustic shadowing

7 / 25

7) Which parameter does not directly affect the radiographic density of an image?

A) kVp

B) Processing time

C) Object–film distance

D) Exposure time

8 / 25

8) Which of the following processing factors may lead to increased film density?

A) Incorrect developer temperature

B) Improperly mixed developer solution

C) Contaminated developer solution

D) Diluted developer solution

9 / 25

9) Which physical factor may result in diminished radiographic contrast?

A) Increased object–film distance

B) Patient too thick

C) Underfiltration

D) Patient not parallel to the film

10 / 25

10) Which of the following problems would result in black marks on a developed radiograph?

A) Low processing solutions

B) Inadequate rinsing

C) Debris in the cassette

D) Damaged grid

11 / 25

11) Which factor is most likely to contribute to motion artifacts in radiographic images?

A) Overexposure of the film

B) Incorrect film processing time

C) Use of a grid with a high grid ratio

D) Patient movement during exposure

12 / 25

12) Which artifact in radiography is characterized by a gradual loss of detail at the edges of structures due to the divergence of the X–ray beam?

A) Quantum mottle

B) Motion blur

C) Grid cutoff

D) Penumbra

13 / 25

13) What is one of the main advantages of digital radiography over conventional film radiography?

A) Immediate image acquisition and manipulation

B) Reduced image resolution

C) No need for collimation

D) Higher radiation dose

14 / 25

14) Which of the following best describes “contrast resolution” in diagnostic imaging?

A) The ability to identify fine structural details

B) The size of the smallest detectable object

C) The ability to differentiate between two objects of similar density

D) The time required to process an image

15 / 25

15) Which imaging modality is best suited for evaluating soft tissue contrast without using ionizing radiation?

A) CT scan

B) X–ray

C) Ultrasound

D) MRI

16 / 25

16) What is the primary purpose of using a grid in radiography?

A) To decrease image resolution

B) To increase exposure time

C) To reduce the amount of scatter radiation reaching the film

D) To improve film processing speed

17 / 25

17) What is the effect of increasing the kilovoltage peak (kVp) on a radiograph?

A) Increases exposure time

B) Decreases image contrast

C) Increases image contrast

D) Decreases patient dose

18 / 25

18) In computed tomography (CT), what does the term “slice thickness” refer to?

A) The number of images acquired per rotation

B) The amount of time taken to acquire the image

C) The depth of the section of tissue imaged

D) The width of the X–ray beam used

19 / 25

19) Which diagnostic imaging technique forms images based on the release of positrons caused by the administration of a radioactive tracer isotope?

A) PET scan

B) MRI

C) CT scan

D) Ultrasound

20 / 25

20) Which of the following would appear the whitest on an X–ray?

A) Barium

B) Fat

C) Bone

D) Organs

21 / 25

21) In digital radiography, which term describes the measure of spatial resolution or the ability to distinguish small details?

A) Contrast

B) Sensitivity

C) Dynamic range

D) Pixel size

22 / 25

22) In radiographic quality assurance, which of the following practices is essential for ensuring consistent image quality?

A) Ignoring environmental factors

B) Using expired processing chemicals

C) Increasing the kVp arbitrarily

D) Regular calibration and maintenance of the imaging equipment

23 / 25

23) Which of the following is described as a loss of detail due to phosphor variations in the intensifying screen?

A) Radiographic mottle

B) Quantum mottle

C) Penumbra

D) Structure mottle

24 / 25

24) A higher grid ratio indicates that:

A) Shorter exposure time is required

B) More scatter radiation is absorbed

C) Less primary radiation is absorbed

D) Less scatter radiation is absorbed

25 / 25

25) During an ultrasound exam, which parameter is adjusted to optimize image resolution and penetration depth?

A) Depth

B) Focus

C) Frequency

D) Gain

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