VTNE Diagnostic Imaging Practice Test Questions Answers

Last Updated on March 8, 2025

VTNE Diagnostic Imaging Practice Test Questions Answers 2025. Diagnostic imaging questions are another type of question on the VTNE. This group of questions makes up about 6 percent (9 items) of the exam.

The diagnostic imaging questions on the VTNE are designed to test your knowledge of the various forms of diagnostic imaging, the methods and techniques for using diagnostic imaging devices, X-ray technology, X-ray processing and development techniques, quality assurance techniques, maintenance and safety protocols, positioning techniques, and more.

Sometimes, a simple physical examination may not be enough for a veterinarian to accurately determine what is wrong with a sick or injured patient. When they need to get a closer look at what is happening inside their patients, technicians frequently use diagnostic imaging tools such as X-rays, MRIs, and ultrasounds to help them formulate proper diagnoses.

VTNE Diagnostic Imaging Practice Test

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VTNE Diagnostic Imaging Practice Test

VTNE Diagnostic Imaging Practice Test
Total Items: 25
Test Ducation: N/A

Diagnostic imaging questions may ask you to correctly identify a piece of equipment or an imaging technique based on a given definition or scenario. You may also find questions that ask you to select the correct statement from a series of incorrect statements or to choose the incorrect statement from a series of correct statements. The multiple-choice items are generally formatted as questions, incomplete statements, or scenarios.

1 / 25

1) What is the primary purpose of using a grid in radiography?

A) To reduce the amount of scatter radiation reaching the film

B) To decrease image resolution

C) To increase exposure time

D) To improve film processing speed

2 / 25

2) In radiographic quality assurance, which of the following practices is essential for ensuring consistent image quality?

A) Using expired processing chemicals

B) Ignoring environmental factors

C) Regular calibration and maintenance of the imaging equipment

D) Increasing the kVp arbitrarily

3 / 25

3) A higher grid ratio indicates that:

A) Shorter exposure time is required

B) More scatter radiation is absorbed

C) Less scatter radiation is absorbed

D) Less primary radiation is absorbed

4 / 25

4) Which of the following best describes “contrast resolution” in diagnostic imaging?

A) The size of the smallest detectable object

B) The ability to differentiate between two objects of similar density

C) The ability to identify fine structural details

D) The time required to process an image

5 / 25

5) Which artifact in radiography is characterized by a gradual loss of detail at the edges of structures due to the divergence of the X–ray beam?

A) Penumbra

B) Motion blur

C) Grid cutoff

D) Quantum mottle

6 / 25

6) Which diagnostic imaging technique forms images based on the release of positrons caused by the administration of a radioactive tracer isotope?

A) MRI

B) Ultrasound

C) PET scan

D) CT scan

7 / 25

7) What is one of the main advantages of digital radiography over conventional film radiography?

A) Reduced image resolution

B) Immediate image acquisition and manipulation

C) No need for collimation

D) Higher radiation dose

8 / 25

8) During an ultrasound exam, which parameter is adjusted to optimize image resolution and penetration depth?

A) Gain

B) Frequency

C) Focus

D) Depth

9 / 25

9) What is the primary reason for collimation during X–ray exposure?

A) To reduce patient dose and improve image quality by limiting the beam size

B) To allow simultaneous imaging of multiple patients

C) To speed up film processing

D) To increase the contrast of the image

10 / 25

10) Which factor is most likely to contribute to motion artifacts in radiographic images?

A) Incorrect film processing time

B) Use of a grid with a high grid ratio

C) Patient movement during exposure

D) Overexposure of the film

11 / 25

11) Which imaging modality is best suited for evaluating soft tissue contrast without using ionizing radiation?

A) X–ray

B) MRI

C) CT scan

D) Ultrasound

12 / 25

12) After soaking in the developer, the next step in developing a radiograph is the:

A) Fixer

B) Dryer

C) Rinse bath

D) Wash bath

13 / 25

13) Which of the following is described as a loss of detail due to phosphor variations in the intensifying screen?

A) Penumbra

B) Radiographic mottle

C) Quantum mottle

D) Structure mottle

14 / 25

14) In computed tomography (CT), what does the term “slice thickness” refer to?

A) The depth of the section of tissue imaged

B) The width of the X–ray beam used

C) The number of images acquired per rotation

D) The amount of time taken to acquire the image

15 / 25

15) In nuclear scintigraphy, the administration of a radiopharmaceutical primarily allows visualization of:

A) Soft tissue contrast

B) Bone structure

C) Organ function and metabolism

D) Vascular anatomy

16 / 25

16) Which term describes the inherent graininess or speckled appearance seen on radiographs, especially at low exposure levels?

A) Penumbra

B) Quantum mottle

C) Radiographic mottle

D) Structure mottle

17 / 25

17) In digital radiography, which term describes the measure of spatial resolution or the ability to distinguish small details?

A) Dynamic range

B) Pixel size

C) Sensitivity

D) Contrast

18 / 25

18) Which physical factor may result in diminished radiographic contrast?

A) Patient too thick

B) Increased object–film distance

C) Patient not parallel to the film

D) Underfiltration

19 / 25

19) What is the effect of increasing the kilovoltage peak (kVp) on a radiograph?

A) Decreases patient dose

B) Decreases image contrast

C) Increases exposure time

D) Increases image contrast

20 / 25

20) Which of the following would appear the whitest on an X–ray?

A) Organs

B) Fat

C) Barium

D) Bone

21 / 25

21) Which parameter does not directly affect the radiographic density of an image?

A) Exposure time

B) Object–film distance

C) Processing time

D) kVp

22 / 25

22) Dorsoventral is a directional term that indicates an X–ray that enters from the:

A) Tail and exits through the head

B) Back and exits through the abdomen

C) Dorsal aspect of the hind limb and exits at the plantar aspect

D) Dorsal aspect of the forelimb and exits at the palmar aspect

23 / 25

23) Which of the following problems would result in black marks on a developed radiograph?

A) Inadequate rinsing

B) Debris in the cassette

C) Damaged grid

D) Low processing solutions

24 / 25

24) Which of the following processing factors may lead to increased film density?

A) Diluted developer solution

B) Incorrect developer temperature

C) Contaminated developer solution

D) Improperly mixed developer solution

25 / 25

25) Which type of ultrasound artifact occurs when sound is completely reflected or absorbed by an object?

A) Refraction

B) Reverberation

C) Mirror image

D) Acoustic shadowing

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