VTNE Diagnostic Imaging Practice Test Questions Answers

Last Updated on March 8, 2025

VTNE Diagnostic Imaging Practice Test Questions Answers 2025. Diagnostic imaging questions are another type of question on the VTNE. This group of questions makes up about 6 percent (9 items) of the exam.

The diagnostic imaging questions on the VTNE are designed to test your knowledge of the various forms of diagnostic imaging, the methods and techniques for using diagnostic imaging devices, X-ray technology, X-ray processing and development techniques, quality assurance techniques, maintenance and safety protocols, positioning techniques, and more.

Sometimes, a simple physical examination may not be enough for a veterinarian to accurately determine what is wrong with a sick or injured patient. When they need to get a closer look at what is happening inside their patients, technicians frequently use diagnostic imaging tools such as X-rays, MRIs, and ultrasounds to help them formulate proper diagnoses.

VTNE Diagnostic Imaging Practice Test

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VTNE Diagnostic Imaging Practice Test

VTNE Diagnostic Imaging Practice Test
Total Items: 25
Test Ducation: N/A

Diagnostic imaging questions may ask you to correctly identify a piece of equipment or an imaging technique based on a given definition or scenario. You may also find questions that ask you to select the correct statement from a series of incorrect statements or to choose the incorrect statement from a series of correct statements. The multiple-choice items are generally formatted as questions, incomplete statements, or scenarios.

1 / 25

1) What is one of the main advantages of digital radiography over conventional film radiography?

A) Higher radiation dose

B) Reduced image resolution

C) Immediate image acquisition and manipulation

D) No need for collimation

2 / 25

2) Which term describes the inherent graininess or speckled appearance seen on radiographs, especially at low exposure levels?

A) Radiographic mottle

B) Quantum mottle

C) Structure mottle

D) Penumbra

3 / 25

3) Which of the following would appear the whitest on an X–ray?

A) Barium

B) Bone

C) Fat

D) Organs

4 / 25

4) What is the primary purpose of using a grid in radiography?

A) To increase exposure time

B) To decrease image resolution

C) To reduce the amount of scatter radiation reaching the film

D) To improve film processing speed

5 / 25

5) In radiographic quality assurance, which of the following practices is essential for ensuring consistent image quality?

A) Regular calibration and maintenance of the imaging equipment

B) Using expired processing chemicals

C) Ignoring environmental factors

D) Increasing the kVp arbitrarily

6 / 25

6) Which artifact in radiography is characterized by a gradual loss of detail at the edges of structures due to the divergence of the X–ray beam?

A) Quantum mottle

B) Motion blur

C) Grid cutoff

D) Penumbra

7 / 25

7) Which imaging modality is best suited for evaluating soft tissue contrast without using ionizing radiation?

A) MRI

B) X–ray

C) Ultrasound

D) CT scan

8 / 25

8) Which of the following problems would result in black marks on a developed radiograph?

A) Inadequate rinsing

B) Debris in the cassette

C) Low processing solutions

D) Damaged grid

9 / 25

9) In digital radiography, which term describes the measure of spatial resolution or the ability to distinguish small details?

A) Sensitivity

B) Pixel size

C) Contrast

D) Dynamic range

10 / 25

10) What is the primary reason for collimation during X–ray exposure?

A) To allow simultaneous imaging of multiple patients

B) To increase the contrast of the image

C) To speed up film processing

D) To reduce patient dose and improve image quality by limiting the beam size

11 / 25

11) Which of the following best describes “contrast resolution” in diagnostic imaging?

A) The ability to differentiate between two objects of similar density

B) The time required to process an image

C) The size of the smallest detectable object

D) The ability to identify fine structural details

12 / 25

12) Which of the following processing factors may lead to increased film density?

A) Contaminated developer solution

B) Incorrect developer temperature

C) Diluted developer solution

D) Improperly mixed developer solution

13 / 25

13) Which physical factor may result in diminished radiographic contrast?

A) Patient not parallel to the film

B) Underfiltration

C) Increased object–film distance

D) Patient too thick

14 / 25

14) Which diagnostic imaging technique forms images based on the release of positrons caused by the administration of a radioactive tracer isotope?

A) Ultrasound

B) CT scan

C) MRI

D) PET scan

15 / 25

15) Which factor is most likely to contribute to motion artifacts in radiographic images?

A) Use of a grid with a high grid ratio

B) Incorrect film processing time

C) Patient movement during exposure

D) Overexposure of the film

16 / 25

16) Which of the following is described as a loss of detail due to phosphor variations in the intensifying screen?

A) Quantum mottle

B) Penumbra

C) Structure mottle

D) Radiographic mottle

17 / 25

17) A higher grid ratio indicates that:

A) Shorter exposure time is required

B) Less primary radiation is absorbed

C) Less scatter radiation is absorbed

D) More scatter radiation is absorbed

18 / 25

18) After soaking in the developer, the next step in developing a radiograph is the:

A) Wash bath

B) Dryer

C) Rinse bath

D) Fixer

19 / 25

19) Dorsoventral is a directional term that indicates an X–ray that enters from the:

A) Tail and exits through the head

B) Dorsal aspect of the hind limb and exits at the plantar aspect

C) Dorsal aspect of the forelimb and exits at the palmar aspect

D) Back and exits through the abdomen

20 / 25

20) In computed tomography (CT), what does the term “slice thickness” refer to?

A) The depth of the section of tissue imaged

B) The width of the X–ray beam used

C) The amount of time taken to acquire the image

D) The number of images acquired per rotation

21 / 25

21) What is the effect of increasing the kilovoltage peak (kVp) on a radiograph?

A) Decreases image contrast

B) Increases exposure time

C) Increases image contrast

D) Decreases patient dose

22 / 25

22) Which type of ultrasound artifact occurs when sound is completely reflected or absorbed by an object?

A) Refraction

B) Acoustic shadowing

C) Reverberation

D) Mirror image

23 / 25

23) In nuclear scintigraphy, the administration of a radiopharmaceutical primarily allows visualization of:

A) Organ function and metabolism

B) Soft tissue contrast

C) Vascular anatomy

D) Bone structure

24 / 25

24) Which parameter does not directly affect the radiographic density of an image?

A) Processing time

B) Object–film distance

C) Exposure time

D) kVp

25 / 25

25) During an ultrasound exam, which parameter is adjusted to optimize image resolution and penetration depth?

A) Gain

B) Focus

C) Depth

D) Frequency

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