VTNE Diagnostic Imaging Practice Test Questions Answers

Last Updated on March 8, 2025

VTNE Diagnostic Imaging Practice Test Questions Answers 2025. Diagnostic imaging questions are another type of question on the VTNE. This group of questions makes up about 6 percent (9 items) of the exam.

The diagnostic imaging questions on the VTNE are designed to test your knowledge of the various forms of diagnostic imaging, the methods and techniques for using diagnostic imaging devices, X-ray technology, X-ray processing and development techniques, quality assurance techniques, maintenance and safety protocols, positioning techniques, and more.

Sometimes, a simple physical examination may not be enough for a veterinarian to accurately determine what is wrong with a sick or injured patient. When they need to get a closer look at what is happening inside their patients, technicians frequently use diagnostic imaging tools such as X-rays, MRIs, and ultrasounds to help them formulate proper diagnoses.

VTNE Diagnostic Imaging Practice Test

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VTNE Diagnostic Imaging Practice Test

VTNE Diagnostic Imaging Practice Test
Total Items: 25
Test Ducation: N/A

Diagnostic imaging questions may ask you to correctly identify a piece of equipment or an imaging technique based on a given definition or scenario. You may also find questions that ask you to select the correct statement from a series of incorrect statements or to choose the incorrect statement from a series of correct statements. The multiple-choice items are generally formatted as questions, incomplete statements, or scenarios.

1 / 25

1) Which type of ultrasound artifact occurs when sound is completely reflected or absorbed by an object?

A) Reverberation

B) Acoustic shadowing

C) Refraction

D) Mirror image

2 / 25

2) What is the effect of increasing the kilovoltage peak (kVp) on a radiograph?

A) Decreases image contrast

B) Increases exposure time

C) Increases image contrast

D) Decreases patient dose

3 / 25

3) In digital radiography, which term describes the measure of spatial resolution or the ability to distinguish small details?

A) Contrast

B) Sensitivity

C) Pixel size

D) Dynamic range

4 / 25

4) Which diagnostic imaging technique forms images based on the release of positrons caused by the administration of a radioactive tracer isotope?

A) Ultrasound

B) MRI

C) PET scan

D) CT scan

5 / 25

5) Which imaging modality is best suited for evaluating soft tissue contrast without using ionizing radiation?

A) Ultrasound

B) MRI

C) X–ray

D) CT scan

6 / 25

6) What is one of the main advantages of digital radiography over conventional film radiography?

A) Immediate image acquisition and manipulation

B) Reduced image resolution

C) Higher radiation dose

D) No need for collimation

7 / 25

7) Which factor is most likely to contribute to motion artifacts in radiographic images?

A) Overexposure of the film

B) Incorrect film processing time

C) Patient movement during exposure

D) Use of a grid with a high grid ratio

8 / 25

8) After soaking in the developer, the next step in developing a radiograph is the:

A) Fixer

B) Wash bath

C) Rinse bath

D) Dryer

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9) In radiographic quality assurance, which of the following practices is essential for ensuring consistent image quality?

A) Increasing the kVp arbitrarily

B) Regular calibration and maintenance of the imaging equipment

C) Using expired processing chemicals

D) Ignoring environmental factors

10 / 25

10) Which of the following processing factors may lead to increased film density?

A) Incorrect developer temperature

B) Diluted developer solution

C) Improperly mixed developer solution

D) Contaminated developer solution

11 / 25

11) In computed tomography (CT), what does the term “slice thickness” refer to?

A) The number of images acquired per rotation

B) The width of the X–ray beam used

C) The amount of time taken to acquire the image

D) The depth of the section of tissue imaged

12 / 25

12) Which of the following problems would result in black marks on a developed radiograph?

A) Inadequate rinsing

B) Low processing solutions

C) Debris in the cassette

D) Damaged grid

13 / 25

13) Dorsoventral is a directional term that indicates an X–ray that enters from the:

A) Tail and exits through the head

B) Dorsal aspect of the forelimb and exits at the palmar aspect

C) Back and exits through the abdomen

D) Dorsal aspect of the hind limb and exits at the plantar aspect

14 / 25

14) Which of the following best describes “contrast resolution” in diagnostic imaging?

A) The size of the smallest detectable object

B) The ability to identify fine structural details

C) The ability to differentiate between two objects of similar density

D) The time required to process an image

15 / 25

15) Which artifact in radiography is characterized by a gradual loss of detail at the edges of structures due to the divergence of the X–ray beam?

A) Motion blur

B) Grid cutoff

C) Quantum mottle

D) Penumbra

16 / 25

16) Which physical factor may result in diminished radiographic contrast?

A) Increased object–film distance

B) Underfiltration

C) Patient not parallel to the film

D) Patient too thick

17 / 25

17) What is the primary purpose of using a grid in radiography?

A) To improve film processing speed

B) To decrease image resolution

C) To reduce the amount of scatter radiation reaching the film

D) To increase exposure time

18 / 25

18) In nuclear scintigraphy, the administration of a radiopharmaceutical primarily allows visualization of:

A) Soft tissue contrast

B) Bone structure

C) Organ function and metabolism

D) Vascular anatomy

19 / 25

19) Which parameter does not directly affect the radiographic density of an image?

A) kVp

B) Processing time

C) Exposure time

D) Object–film distance

20 / 25

20) During an ultrasound exam, which parameter is adjusted to optimize image resolution and penetration depth?

A) Frequency

B) Gain

C) Focus

D) Depth

21 / 25

21) A higher grid ratio indicates that:

A) Less scatter radiation is absorbed

B) More scatter radiation is absorbed

C) Shorter exposure time is required

D) Less primary radiation is absorbed

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22) Which term describes the inherent graininess or speckled appearance seen on radiographs, especially at low exposure levels?

A) Penumbra

B) Structure mottle

C) Radiographic mottle

D) Quantum mottle

23 / 25

23) Which of the following is described as a loss of detail due to phosphor variations in the intensifying screen?

A) Quantum mottle

B) Radiographic mottle

C) Structure mottle

D) Penumbra

24 / 25

24) What is the primary reason for collimation during X–ray exposure?

A) To speed up film processing

B) To increase the contrast of the image

C) To allow simultaneous imaging of multiple patients

D) To reduce patient dose and improve image quality by limiting the beam size

25 / 25

25) Which of the following would appear the whitest on an X–ray?

A) Organs

B) Barium

C) Bone

D) Fat

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