ACLS Post Test Answer Key 2022 (Question Answers)

ACLS Post Test Answer Key 2022 (Question Answers): American Heart Association (AHA) Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS) Post Test Answer Key. There are a total of 50 questions with answer keys designed to help ACLS 2022 candidates for their better test prep.

The ACLS Post Test Answer Key quiz and case studies presented as follows are provided to help you integrate the information presented in this chapter. As you work through the case studies, remember that there may be alternative actions that are perfectly acceptable, yet not presented in the case study.

ACLS Post Test Answer Key 2022 (Question Answers)

Test Name ACLS Pretest
Type of Question Multiple Choice Question Answers
Subject Airway Management, Cardiac Anatomy and Electrophysiology
Cardiac Arrest Rhythms, Tachycardias
Total Question 50
Test Type Sample / Mock Test
Available of Answers YES
ACLS

Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support

Q1. Which of the following memory aids may be used when evaluating a patient’s level of responsiveness?

  • A. CAB
  • B. AVPU
  • C. ABCDE
  • D. OPQRST
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: B 

Q2. Upon finding an unresponsive adult patient, you called for help and asked that someone get an AED or defibrillator. Your next action should be to:

  • A. Begin chest compressions.
  • B. Reposition the patient’s head.
  • C. Open the airway and begin rescue breathing.
  • D. Simultaneously look for breathing and feel for a pulse.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: D 

Q3. During which phase of a cardiac arrest is CPR performed?

  • A. No-flow phase
  • B. Prearrest phase
  • C. Low-flow phase
  • D. Postresuscitation phase
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: C 

Q4. The purpose of the primary survey is to:

  • A. Perform a detailed head-to-toe physical examination.
  • B. Determine the number of personnel needed to assist in the patient’s care.
  • C. Focus on the patient’s chief complaint/reason for seeking medical assistance.
  • D. Detect the presence of life-threatening problems that require rapid intervention.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: D 

Q5. Shockable cardiac arrest rhythms include:

  • A. Asystole and PEA.
  • B. pVT and asystole.
  • C. PEA and VF.
  • D. VF and pVT.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: D 

Q6. Which of the following is (are) the initial cardiac rhythm(s) typically recorded in an out-of-hospital cardiac arrest?

  • A. Asystole
  • B. Idioventricular rhythm, PEA
  • C. VF, pVT
  • D. pVT, PEA
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: A 

Q7. During the primary survey, for what length of time should you assess for the presence of a pulse?

  • A. Check for a pulse for no more than 3 seconds.
  • B. Check for a pulse for no more than 5 seconds.
  • C. Check for a pulse for at least 5 seconds but no more than 10 seconds.
  • D. Check for a pulse for at least 10 seconds but no more than 30 seconds.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: C 

Q8. Which of the following is a common cause of excessive intrathoracic pressure during CPR?

  • A. Hyperventilation
  • B. Inability to open the victim’s airway
  • C. Inadequate rate of chest compressions
  • D. Frequent interruptions for rhythm/pulse checks
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: A 

Q9. If no head or neck trauma is suspected, which of the following techniques should health care professionals use to open the airway?

  • A. Tongue–jaw lift
  • B. Head tilt–chin lift
  • C. Head tilt–neck lift
  • D. Jaw thrust without neck extension
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: B 

Q10. An oral airway:

  • A. May result in an airway obstruction if improperly inserted.
  • B. Is usually well tolerated in the responsive or semiresponsive patient.
  • C. Should be lubricated with a petroleum-based lubricant before insertion.
  • D. May inadvertently enter the cranial vault if used in a patient with a craniofacial injury.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: A 

Q11. Which of the following devices may be used to deliver positive pressure ventilation?

  • A. Nasal cannula
  • B. Pocket face mask
  • C. Simple face mask
  • D. Nonrebreather mask
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: B  

Q12. Which of the following statements is true about a nasal airway?

  • A. A nasal airway can be placed in either nostril to help maintain an open airway.
  • B. A nasal airway should only be used in unresponsive patients who do not have a gag reflex.
  • C. A correctly sized nasal airway extends from the corner of the patient’s mouth to the tip of the ear lobe.
  • D. When properly positioned, the distal tip of the nasal airway rests in the patient’s trachea.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: A 

Q13. Pulmonary compliance refers to:

  • A. The resistance of the patient’s lung tissue to ventilation.
  • B. The amount of gas inhaled or exhaled during a normal breath.
  • C. The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide during cellular metabolism.
  • D. The amount of air moved in and out of the respiratory tract in 1 minute.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: A 

Q14. You and a coworker arrive to find a 78-year-old woman unresponsive in bed. She is not breathing but does have a pulse. You have a pocket face mask on hand that is equipped with an oxygen inlet. After quickly connecting oxygen tubing to the inlet on the mask, you should set the oxygen flow rate at:

  • A. 1 to 2 L/min.
  • B. 4 to 6 L/min.
  • C. 8 to 10 L/min.
  • D. 10 to 12 L/min.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: D 

Q15. Which of the following will deliver the highest oxygen concentration?

  • A. A nasal cannula with an oxygen flow rate of 4 L/min
  • B. A pocket mask with an oxygen flow rate of 10 L/min
  • C. A simple face mask with an oxygen flow rate of 8 L/min
  • D. A nonrebreather mask with an oxygen flow rate of 10 L/min
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: D 

Q16. Signs of adequate ventilation when delivering ventilations with a BMD include:

  • A. The presence of gurgling sounds during ventilation.
  • B. The rise and fall of the patient’s chest wall with each ventilation.
  • C. The collapse of the oxygen reservoir on the BMD with each ventilation.
  • D. TheBMDbecomes progressively more difficult to compress with each ventilation.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: B 

Q17. Which of the following is not an example of an extraglottic airway device?

  • A. Laryngeal tube
  • B. ETT
  • C. LMA
  • D. Esophageal-tracheal Combitube
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: B 

Q18. A 19-year-old man is unresponsive and not breathing. A slow, weak pulse is present. Your best course of action will be to:

  • A. Begin chest compressions.
  • B. Insert an advanced airway.
  • C. Administer oxygen by nasal cannula.
  • D. Insert an oral airway and begin BMV.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: D 

Q19. Tracheal intubation:

  • A. Is contraindicated in unresponsive patients.
  • B. Eliminates the risk of aspiration of gastric contents.
  • C. Should be preceded by efforts to ventilate by another method.
  • D. When attempted, should be performed in less than 60 seconds.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: C 

Q20. When ventilating a patient by means of a BMD, rescuers can successfully deliver about__ oxygen without the use of supplemental oxygen.

  • A. 16%
  • B. 21%
  • C. 50%
  • D. 80%
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: B 

Q21. In the heart’s conduction system, the ___ receive(s) an electrical impulse from the right and left bundle branches and relay(s) it to the ventricular myocardium.

  • A. Purkinje fibers
  • B. SA node
  • C. AV node
  • D. Atrial pacemaker cells
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: A 

Q22. When the heart rate is within normal limits, which of the following is used as the reference point from which to estimate the position of the isoelectric line and determine ST segment displacement?

  • A. PR segment
  • B. TP segment
  • C. QT interval
  • D. QRS complex
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: B 

Q23. Which of the following represent ventricular repolarization on the ECG?

  • A. P wave and PR interval
  • B. ST segment and T wave
  • C. PR interval and ST segment
  • D. QRS complex and ST segment
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: B 

Q24. The period during the cardiac cycle when cells cannot respond to a stimulus, no matter how strong, is called the:

  • A. Supernormal period.
  • B. Depolarized period.
  • C. Relative refractory period.
  • D. Absolute refractory period.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: D 

Q25. Which of the following are the main branches of the left coronary artery?

  • A. Marginal and oblique arteries
  • B. CX and marginal arteries
  • C. Anterior descending and oblique arteries
  • D. CX and anterior descending arteries
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: D 

Q26. Which of the following leads view the heart in the frontal plane?

  • A. I, II, III, V1, V2, and V3
  • B. V1, V2, V3, V4, V5, and V6
  • C. I, II, III, aVR, aVL, and aVF
  • D. aVR, aVL, aVF, V4, V5, and V6
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: C 

Q27. What does the QRS complex represent?

  • A. Atrial depolarization
  • B. Ventricular contraction
  • C. Ventricular depolarization
  • D. Ventricular repolarization
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: C 

Q28. What is meant by the term PEA?

  • A. PEA refers to a flat line on the cardiac monitor.
  • B. PEA refers to a slow rhythm with a wide-QRS complex.
  • C. PEA refers to a chaotic rhythm that is likely to degenerate into cardiac arrest.
  • D. PEA refers to an organized rhythm on the cardiac monitor (other than VT), though a pulse is not present.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: D 

Q29. Defibrillation is indicated in the management of:

  • A. VF and asystole.
  • B. PEA and asystole.
  • C. pVT and VF.
  • D. pVT and PEA.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: C 

Q30. A patient is in cardiac arrest. CPR is in progress. Two attempts to establish peripheral IV access have been unsuccessful. To administer medications to this patient, your best course of action in this situation will be to:

  • A. Proceed with insertion of a central line.
  • B. Continue attempts to establish peripheral IV access.
  • C. Intubate the patient and administer drugs via the tracheal tube.
  • D. Establish vascular access by means of an IO infusion.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: D 

Q31. In which of the following situations would an epinephrine IV bolus be indicated?

  • A. Junctional rhythm, pVT, and asystole
  • B. Sinus bradycardia, junctional rhythm, and a ventricular escape rhythm
  • C. PEA, pVT, and asystole
  • D. PEA, VF, and a ventricular escape rhythm
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: C 

Q32. Establishing vascular access is part of:

  • A. “A” in the primary survey.
  • B. “B” in the secondary survey.
  • C. “C” in the secondary survey.
  • D. “D” in the primary survey.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: C 

Q33. The first medication used in the management of PEA is:

  • A. Lidocaine.
  • B. Epinephrine.
  • C. Amiodarone.
  • D. Atropine or epinephrine.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: B 

Q34. Which of the following statements about lidocaine dosing during cardiac arrest is correct?

  • A. Lidocaine is given as a continuous IV infusion of 2 to 10 mcg/min.
  • B. Lidocaine is given as a continuous IV infusion of 10 to 20 mcg/kg/min.
  • C. The initial dose is 1 mg IV push, which may be repeated twice to a maximum dose of 3 mg.
  • D. The initial dose is 1 to 1.5 mg/kg IV push; repeat doses of 0.5 to 0.75 mg/kg IV push may be given at 5- to 10-minute intervals, to a maximum dose of 3 mg/kg.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: D 

Q35. A 49-year-old man is found unresponsive, not breathing, and pulseless. The cardiac monitor reveals monomorphic VT. The most important actions in the management of this patient are:

  • A. CPR and defibrillation.
  • B. Defibrillation and resuscitation medications.
  • C. CPR and prompt insertion of an advanced airway.
  • D. Synchronized cardioversion and resuscitation medications.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: A 

Q36. A 75-year-old man is on the telemetry floor recovering from an inferior wall myocardial infarction. The nursing staff arrives in the patient’s room in response to an alarmfrom his cardiacmonitor, which reveals a sinus bradycardia at 40 beats/min. The patient is unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. An IV is in place. You should now:

  • A. Defibrillate immediately.
  • B. Begin transcutaneous pacing.
  • C. Begin CPR, ventilate with a bag-mask, and give epinephrine IV.
  • D. Begin CPR, insert an advanced airway, and give atropine IV.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: C 

Q37. to Q42. Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

Q37. Transthoracic impedance is significantly increased when defibrillation is performed without the use of conductive material.

  • A. True
  • B. False
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: T 

Q38. Vasopressin can be substituted for the first or second dose of epinephrine in cardiac arrest.

  • A. True
  • B. False
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: F 

Q39. Current resuscitation guidelines recommend the routine use of lidocaine after cardiac arrest.

  • A. True
  • B. False
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: F 

Q40. For intubated patients, failure to achieve an EtCO2 of greater than 10 mm Hg after 20 minutes of CPR is associated with extremely poor chances for ROSC and survival.

  • A. True
  • B. False
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: T 

Q41. When a monophasic defibrillator is used for shockable cardiac arrest rhythms, the initial recommended energy dose is 120 to 150 J; 360 J is recommended for all subsequent shocks.

  • A. True
  • B. False
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: F 

Q42. Patients in cardiac arrest associated with PEA or asystole should receive epinephrine early during the resuscitative effort.

  • A. True
  • B. False
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: T 

Q43. Identify the following rhythm (lead II):

  • A. PMVT
  • B. Coarse VF
  • C. Sinus rhythm to monomorphic VT
  • D. Sinus rhythm with a run of monomorphic VT
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: C. Sinus rhythm to monomorphic VT 

Q44. Identify the following rhythm (lead II):

  • A. PMVT
  • B. Coarse VF
  • C. Sinus rhythm to monomorphic VT
  • D. Sinus rhythm with a run of monomorphic VT
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: A. PMVT 

Q45. Identify the following rhythm (lead II):

  • A. PMVT
  • B. Coarse VF
  • C. Sinus rhythm to monomorphic VT
  • D. Sinus rhythm with a run of monomorphic VT
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: C. Sinus rhythm with a run of monomorphic VT 

Q46. Identify the following rhythm (lead II):

  • A. PMVT
  • B. Coarse VF
  • C. Sinus rhythm to monomorphic VT
  • D. Sinus rhythm with a run of monomorphic VT
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: B. Coarse VF 

Q47. A 72-year-old man is anxious and complaining of palpitations. His blood pressure is 110/64 millimeters of mercury (mm Hg), his pulse is 190 beats/min, and his ventilatory rate is 16 breaths/min. The patient denies chest pain. Breath sounds are clear. The cardiac monitor reveals monomorphic VT. The recommended treatment in this situation includes:

  • A. Beginning CPR and defibrillating immediately.
  • B. ABCs, O2, IV, and epinephrine 1 mg rapidly IV.
  • C. ABCs, O2, IV, and procainamide 20 to 50 mg/min IV.
  • D. ABCs, O2, IV, sublingual nitroglycerin, and adenosine 6 mg rapidly IV.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: C 

Q48. With which type of tachycardia does the impulse begin above the ventricles but travel via a pathway other than the AV node and bundle of His?

  • A. Sinus tachycardia
  • B. AT
  • C. AVRT
  • D. AVNRT
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: C 

Q49. Which of the following reflects the correct initial dosage of adenosine?

  • A. 6 mg IV bolus over 1 to 2 minutes
  • B. 3 mg rapid IV bolus over 1 to 3 seconds followed by a 20 mL saline flush
  • C. 6 mg rapid IV bolus over 1 to 3 seconds followed by a 20 mL saline flush
  • D. 12 mg rapid IV bolus over 1 to 3 seconds followed by a 20 mL saline flush
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: C 

Q50. Synchronized cardioversion:

  • A. Is used only for atrial dysrhythmias.
  • B. Delivers a shock during the QRS complex.
  • C. Delivers a shock between the peak and end of the T wave.
  • D. Is used only to treat rhythms with a ventricular rate of less than 60/min.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: B