GED Science Practice Test 1: Scientific Reasoning and Interpretation

GED Science Practice Test 1: Scientific Reasoning and Interpretation. Boost your GED prep with our GED Science Practice Test 1, focusing on scientific reasoning and data interpretation—access free printable questions with detailed answers to enhance your understanding and test-taking skills.

Use these resources to deepen your knowledge of scientific concepts and boost your confidence for the 2024 GED exam. Our practice test will help you excel in scientific reasoning and data interpretation, increasing your chances of achieving a high score.

Scientific reasoning and data interpretation are vital skills for the GED Science test. This section evaluates your ability to understand and apply scientific concepts, analyze data, and draw conclusions based on evidence. You will encounter questions that require you to interpret graphs, charts, and tables and understand experimental design and scientific principles.

Scientific reasoning involves forming hypotheses, designing experiments, analyzing results, and drawing logical conclusions. Data interpretation requires you to read and understand various data presentations and make informed decisions based on the evidence.

Table of Contents

GED Science Practice Test 1

Read the questions carefully and choose the best answer for each question. Some questions may refer to a passage, illustration, or graph. Be sure to answer every question; you will not be penalized for incorrect answers. Do not spend too much time on any one question so you can be sure to complete all the questions in the allotted time.

When answering multiple-choice questions, make sure you have read the question carefully. Often, the question will ask you to choose a statement that is NOT true or find an exception to the rule.

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GED Science Practice Test

General Educational Development
Test Subject: Science
Test Type: Sample Questions and Answers
Total Questions: 34
Time Duration: N/A

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Questions 1–4 refer to the figure above. The figure above shows the evolutionary relationships between the major classes of organisms. Branch points show common ancestors, and each branch represents a new class of organisms.

Which milestone came latest in evolution?

A) tissues

B) bilateral symmetry

C) feathers

D) backbone

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Which of the following shows the correct order of emergence, from earliest to latest?

A) conifers, mosses, ferns

B) mosses, ferns, conifers

C) ferns, mosses, conifers

D) conifers, ferns, mosses

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If groups that shared common ancestors are more likely to be closely related, which groups are most closely related evolutionarily?

A) echinoderms and mollusks

B) birds and reptiles

C) round worms and segmented worms

D) echinoderms and fishes

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Later developments are more advanced and specialized. Which of the following is the most specialized evolutionary development?

A) hair

B) radial symmetry

C) backbone

D) feathers

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5) Questions 5–8 refer to the following information.

The density of an object can often be used to help identify it. Density is defined as the ratio of the mass of a substance to its volume, or as an equation:

If the object has a shape such as a block or a cube, then the volume can be determined by multiplying the length times the width times the height or

V = l × w × h

Three samples are provided to a student:

Sample A is a cube 2 cm on a side, with a mass of 24 grams.
Sample B is a 120 gram block with a height of 3 cm, and a width of 2 cm, and a length of 4 cm.
Sample C is an irregularly shaped object with a mass of 4 g/cm3 and a volume of 10 cm.

What is the density of sample B?

A) 2 g/cm³

B) 3 g/cm³

C) 4 g/cm³

D) 5 g/cm³

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6) Questions 5–8 refer to the following information.

The density of an object can often be used to help identify it. Density is defined as the ratio of the mass of a substance to its volume, or as an equation:

If the object has a shape such as a block or a cube, then the volume can be determined by multiplying the length times the width times the height or

V = l × w × h

Three samples are provided to a student:

Suppose sample A were to be cut into two unevenly sized and shaped pieces. What would be true of the density of the two new, smaller pieces?

A) The larger of the two would have a greater density.

B) The smaller of the two would have a greater density

C) The two pieces would have the same density, which would be different from the original piece.

D) The two pieces would have the same density, which would be the same as the original piece.

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7) Questions 5–8 refer to the following information.

The density of an object can often be used to help identify it. Density is defined as the ratio of the mass of a substance to its volume, or as an equation:

If the object has a shape such as a block or a cube, then the volume can be determined by multiplying the length times the width times the height or

V = l × w × h

Three samples are provided to a student:

When a balloon is heated its volume doubles. What happens to its density?

A) The density doubles.

B) The density quadruples.

C) The density stays the same.

D) The density is cut in half.

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8) Questions 5–8 refer to the following information.

The density of an object can often be used to help identify it. Density is defined as the ratio of the mass of a substance to its volume, or as an equation:

If the object has a shape such as a block or a cube, then the volume can be determined by multiplying the length times the width times the height or

V = l × w × h

Three samples are provided to a student:

What is the mass of sample C?

A) 20 g

B) 30 g

C) 40 g

D) 60 g

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9) An island may form when material expelled by an undersea volcano gradually builds up and rises above the surface of the water. This has happened in numerous places in the Pacific Ocean. Over time, however, another island may begin to form some distance from the first. It is possible that chains of islands, such as the Hawaiian Islands, were formed in this way. One reason for this may be that

A) the volcano moves along the bottom of the ocean

B) the plates of earth and rock that cover the interior of planet Earth are slowly moving, taking the islands with them

C) when the first island was finished, some leftover lava started another island

D) olcanoes erupted in places where islands were going to be formed

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10)

The figure above shows a sonar wave being sent out from a ship, hitting the bottom of the ocean and bouncing back to the ship. By knowing the speed of the sound wave and the time the wave travels, the depth to the bottom of the ocean can be determined. The sonar wave travels at 1,000 meters per second. If it takes 4 seconds for the wave to travel to the bottom of the ocean and return, how deep is the ocean at that location?

A) 500 meters

B) 1500 meters

C) 2000 meters

D) 5000 meters

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11) Questions 11–13 refer to the following passage.

Most of us have played with magnets from the time we were very young. Magnets may be man- made or occur naturally. The earliest of magnets came from the ancient Greeks, who used a mineral known as magnetite, which they noticed could repel or attract certain metals. Interestingly, if a magnet is broken in half, each piece will then have its own north and south poles. In general, all magnets, no matter what their shape, have both a north and south pole. Like poles repel each other; unlike poles attract each other. A compass works because it uses a freely rotating magnet that be attracted or repelled by the naturally magnetic poles of the Earth. One of the most common applications of magnets is in creating an electromagnet, which is caused when an electric current moves through a magnetic material, such as an iron nail.

What type of magnet can be controlled by adjusting the flow of electric current, such as might be used in a scrap yard to pick up, and then drop large pieces of metal?

A) magnetite

B) an electromagnet

C) a naturally occurring magnet

D) a bar magnet

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12) Questions 11–13 refer to the following passage.

Which end of a compass will face north?

A) the north pole

B) the south pole

C) either end, depending on whether it is above or below the equator

D) t depends what metals are around the compass

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13) Questions 11–13 refer to the following passage.

Alnico magnets are used in industry because they have a great deal of strength for their size. What must be true of an alnico magnet?

A) It must have an electric current going through it.

B) It must be attracted to all metals.

C) t must be a naturally occurring magnet.

D) It must have both a north and a south pole.

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14) Questions 14–16 refer to the following article.

The two most common types of engines are the gasoline internal combustion engine and the diesel engine. Each has its own advantages and disadvantages in specific situations. In the gasoline internal combustion engine used in most automobiles and lawn mowers, a mixture of gasoline and air is mixed together and ignited by a spark from a spark plug. The air provides the necessary oxygen that allows combustion to take place.

The diesel engine works by mixing the fuel and air under very high pressures, which heats the mixture to a very high temperature, causing it to ignite. The high pressures used require a very strong construction for the walls of the cylinders and engine. Diesel engines can be more difficult to get started, but once going, they are inexpensive to run, as the fuel they require costs less than gasoline.

Which of the following is true of the internal combustion engine but not the diesel engine?

A) It requires both fuel and air.

B) It is less expensive to operate.

C) It requires a spark plug.

D) It operates by compressing the air and fuel mixture to ignite it.

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15) Questions 14–16 refer to the following article.

Why are diesel engines used for trucks that travel long distances?

A) Gasoline is not available everywhere.

B) Diesel engines get better mileage than gas fuel engines.

C) Internal combustion engines pollute.

D) Spark plugs are unreliable.

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16) Questions 14–16 refer to the following article.

Which type of engine would a race car use and why?

A) internal combustion because it is cheaper to operate

B) internal combustion because it weighs less

C) internal combustion because it uses less fuel

D) diesel because it does not require a spark plug

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17) Questions 17–19 refer to the following article.

All nations agree that cooperative efforts are needed in research to study and predict earthquakes. In July 1956 the first World Conference on Earthquake Engineering was held in Tokyo. Its purpose was to share information about the prediction of earthquakes and methods of constructing buildings and bridges that can withstand the shocks.

What causes earthquakes? The crust of the Earth is a broken mosaic of pieces, bounded by deep cracks called faults. When forces deep inside the Earth move these pieces, tremendous shock waves start from the faults. Shock waves in the crust, from whatever source, can be detected by seismographs all over the world. If the earth- quake occurs beneath the ocean, it produces an enormous wave, called a tsunami, that can do much damage when it arrives at a shore.

What is the most frequent cause of major earthquakes?

A) movements within the Earth

B) folding

C) landslides

D) submarine currents

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18) Questions 17–19 refer to the following article.

How can earthquake destruction be minimized?

A) more frequent use of seismographs

B) better construction of buildings

C) quicker methods of evacuation

D) early detection and warning

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19) Questions 17–19 refer to the following article.

Nuclear explosions can be detected by seismographs because they

A) cause tsunamis

B) occur on geologic faults

C) cause earthquakes

D) produce shock waves in the crust

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20)

Questions 20–23 refer to the table above.

The table shows the atomic composition of some common metals, their charges when they form ions, and a sample compound when the metal ion combines with a –1 Cl ion. Protons have a charge of +1, neutrons have no charge, and electrons have a charge of –1. A neutral atom has equal numbers of protons and neutrons. The mass of an atom comes from its protons and neutrons, each of which has a mass of 1 amu (atomic mass unit). The mass of an electron is so small that it is usually not included in the atomic mass calculation for an atom. Stable ionic compounds are formed from a combination of a positive ion and a negative ion, such that the overall charge from the ions is zero.

What is the value of X, the number of neutrons in a lithium atom?

A) 3

B) 4

C) 5

D) 6

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21)

Questions 20–23 refer to the table above.

How many electrons would a magnesium atom with a charge of +2 have?

A) 2

B) 10

C) 12

D) 20

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22)

Questions 20–23 refer to the table above.

What is the formula for aluminum chloride, shown in the table by Z?

A) Al₃Cl

B) AlCl

C) AlCl₂

D) AlCl₃

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23)

Questions 20–23 refer to the table above.

What happens to an atom if it loses an electron?

A) It takes on a charge of +1 and loses 1 amu of mass.

B) It takes on a charge of +1 and gains 1 amu of mass.

C) It takes on a charge of +1 and has no change in mass.

D) It takes on a charge of –1 and loses 1 amu of mass.

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24) Questions 24–29 refer to the following article.

Photosynthesis is a complex process involving many steps. Water in the soil is absorbed by the roots of a plant, rises through tubules called xylem, and moves through the stems and into the leaves. Carbon dioxide, diffused from the air through the stomata and into the leaf, comes into contact with the water and dissolves. The solution of carbon dioxide in water then diffuses through the cell walls and into the cells. Organelles within the cell, called chloroplasts, contain chlorophyll, a green pigment that captures light energy from the sun and transforms it into chemical energy. This chemical energy acts to convert the carbon dioxide and water into other compounds. These compounds become more and more complex until finally a sugar is produced. Oxygen is given off as a by-product of the photosynthetic process.

Which plant structure is directly involved in the making of sugar?

A) stoma

B) xylem

C) chloroplast

D) plasma membrane

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25) Questions 24–29 refer to the following article.

To carry on photosynthesis, the water of the soil must be transported to the leaf. Which structure conducts soil water to the leaf?

A) chlorophyll

B) stoma

C) xylem

D) phloem

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26) Questions 24–29 refer to the following article.

What is/are the main product(s) of photosynthesis?

A) oxygen and sugars

B) water and oxygen

C) sugars and water

D) chlorophyll only

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27) Questions 24–29 refer to the following article.

Sugar is composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. In the process of photosynthesis, what is the source of these chemical elements?

A) carbon dioxide alone

B) water alone

C) either the carbon dioxide or the water

D) both the carbon dioxide and the water

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28) Questions 24–29 refer to the following article.

What is the function of chlorophyll in photosynthesis?

A) serves as a source of carbohydrate

B) produces carbon dioxide

C) changes light energy to chemical energy

D) supplies chemical energy

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29) Questions 24–29 refer to the following article.

Carbon dioxide enters a plant by way of the

A) roots

B) xylem

C) plasma membrane

D) stomata

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30) The figure above shows a schematic of photosynthesis. Which of the following must be present for plants to produce sugars?

I. light
II. carbon dioxide
III. water

A) I only

B) II only

C) I and II only

D) I, II, and III

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31) Green plants, in sunlight, absorb carbon dioxide to produce glucose, releasing oxygen in the process. Which of the following would be most likely to increase the rate at which this process goes on?

A) Add glucose to the soil.

B) Reduce the amount of carbon dioxide in the air.

C) Increase the amount of carbon dioxide in the air.

D) Increase the amount of oxygen in the air.

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32) Questions 32–34 refer to the following article.

In the process of evolution, some individuals in a population of organisms possess physical traits that allow them to have an advantage in survival over other members of their species. These changes may help them better attract mates, find food, hide from predators, or defend themselves. The individuals with a survival advantage will be more likely to pass their genes on to future generations, thus allowing the species to evolve over time.

A bird’s bill usually defines the type of food that the bird eats. Some hunting birds have sharp hooked bills. Other birds have slender bills to extract nectar from flowers. The interesting bill of the South American toucan is huge and brightly colored and can be as long as half the length of the the bird’s body. This bill is useful in picking fruit.

What is the probable reason that African hornbills closely resemble the South American toucan, even though the two species are unrelated?

A) The resemblance is purely a coincidence.

B) There has been an interchange of genetic material between the two species of birds.

C) The two species of birds have evolved from a common ancestor.

D) Both species of birds are fruit eaters in tropical rain forests.

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33) Questions 32–34 refer to the following article.

When the Industrial Revolution introduced great smoke-belching factories into England, a certain species of moth found itself threatened. These white moths lived on the bark of light-colored trees, where they were virtually invisible to predators. When smog from the factories turned everything in the area black with soot, the trunks of the trees were not immune. As time passed, the population of this moth dropped dramatically. The chief reason for the decline may have been that

A) because the white moths were now visible against the sooty bark, they were easier for birds to catch

B) the soot was poisonous to the moths

C) the soot killed off the moth’s primary source of food

D) the soot destroyed the moth’s eggs

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34) Questions 32–34 refer to the following article.

Snakes are solitary creatures. With a few exceptions, they crawl off to live alone after they hatch. Occasionally a female snake will lay a trail of a special scent called a pheromone. The reason for laying this trail is that the only life process a snake cannot carry on alone is

A) respiration

B) hibernation

C) reproduction

D) regulation

Your score is

In-depth Explanations of Concepts

Scientific Reasoning

Hypothesis Formation: A hypothesis is an educated guess or prediction that can be tested through experimentation.
Experimental Design: Designing an experiment involves planning how to test a hypothesis, including identifying variables and controls.
Data Collection and Analysis: Systematically collecting and analyzing data to identify patterns, trends, and relationships.
Conclusion Drawing: Based on the data analysis, forming conclusions that support or refute the hypothesis.

Data Interpretation

Reading Graphs and Charts: Understanding the axes, labels, and scales to extract relevant information.
Analyzing Tables: Interpreting data presented in rows and columns to find patterns and make comparisons.
Understanding Trends and Patterns: Identifying increases, decreases, and consistent patterns in data.
Making Inferences: Drawing conclusions based on the data presented and the context of the scientific study.

Examples and Practice Questions

Example 1: Interpreting a Line Graph

Line Graph: Temperature Change Over Time

Imagine a line graph with the following data points representing the temperature at different times of the day:

Time	Temperature (°C)
8 AM	16
10 AM	18
12 PM	20
2 PM	22
4 PM	24
6 PM	23
8 PM	21

Practice Question 1: Based on the line graph, what was the temperature at 2 PM?

(A) 20°C
(B) 22°C
(C) 24°C
(D) 26°C

Answer and Explanation: The correct answer is (B) 22°C. By looking at the graph at the 2 PM mark on the x-axis, you can see that the corresponding temperature on the y-axis is 22°C.

Based on the described line graph, what was the trend in temperature from 8 AM to 4 PM?

(A) Increasing
(B) Decreasing
(C) Constant
(D) Fluctuating

Answer and Explanation: The correct answer is (A) Increasing. From 8 AM to 4 PM, the temperature steadily increases from 16°C to 24°C.

Example 2: Analyzing Experimental Design

Experiment Description: A scientist wants to test the effect of different fertilizers on plant growth. She sets up three groups of plants. Group A receives Fertilizer 1, Group B receives Fertilizer 2, and Group C (the control group) receives no fertilizer. All plants are given the same amount of water and light.

Practice Question 2: What is the independent variable in this experiment?

(A) The amount of water
(B) The type of fertilizer
(C) The amount of light
(D) The growth of the plants

Answer and Explanation: The correct answer is (B) the type of fertilizer. The independent variable is the factor that is changed or manipulated in the experiment, in this case, the type of fertilizer given to each group of plants.

Example 3: Interpreting a Table

Table: Average Heights of Different Plant Species

Plant Species	Average Height (cm)
Species A	30
Species B	45
Species C	25
Species D	40

Practice Question 3: Which plant species has the highest average height?

(A) Species A
(B) Species B
(C) Species C
(D) Species D

Answer and Explanation: The correct answer is (B) Species B. The table shows that Species B has the highest average height, at 45 cm.

Tips for Answering Questions Effectively

Scientific Reasoning Tips

Understand the Hypothesis: Ensure you clearly understand the hypothesis being tested.
Identify Variables: Distinguish between independent, dependent, and controlled variables.
Analyze Methods: Look at how the experiment is designed to see if it fairly tests the hypothesis.
Evaluate Results: Consider if the data supports the conclusion and if there are any anomalies or outliers.

Data Interpretation Tips

Read Carefully: Pay close attention to the titles, labels, and units in graphs, tables, and charts.
Look for Trends: Identify any patterns in the data, such as upward or downward trends.
Compare Data Points: Make comparisons between different data points or groups.
Contextualize Data: Think about the broader context and implications of the data.

Additional Practice Questions

Practice Question 4: A scientist observes that a specific bacteria strain grows faster at higher temperatures. Which of the following best describes the dependent variable in this experiment?

(A) The type of bacteria
(B) The temperature
(C) The growth rate of the bacteria
(D) The nutrient levels

Answer and Explanation: The correct answer is (C) The growth rate of the bacteria. The dependent variable is measured in the experiment, which in this case is the growth rate of the bacteria.

Practice Question 5: In a study on the effect of sleep on memory, participants are divided into two groups. Group 1 sleeps 8 hours, and Group 2 sleeps for 4 hours. Both groups are then tested on their ability to recall a list of words. What is the controlled variable?

(A) The number of participants
(B) The amount of sleep
(C) The memory test
(D) The list of words

Answer and Explanation: The correct answer is (D) The list of words. The controlled variable is the factor that is kept constant across all groups, in this case, the list of words used in the memory test.

By practicing these questions and understanding the explanations, you’ll be well-prepared to tackle the GED Science test’s scientific reasoning and data interpretation sections. Good luck!

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