GED Science Practice Test 2022 (Question Answers) PDF. Download printable and editable GED science test-free pdf. This sample test includes Science Experiments, Reading, Meaning Numbers, and Graphics in Science. Our practice test will help you to make better GED Test Prep 2020 online.
NOW IT’S time to put all that you have learned about science and scientific inquiry into practice. In the following section, you will find 35 multiple-choice questions like those you will find on the GED Science Exam.
GED Science Practice Test 2022
The good thing about multiple-choice questions is that the answer is right in front of you. All you need to do is find it, or at least eliminate some of the clearly wrong choices.
At times, you may not be able to eliminate all four of the incorrect choices. But there is no penalty for guessing on the GED. If you can eliminate one of the wrong choices, you will have a 25% chance of guessing correctly, and that is still better than leaving it blank. If you can eliminate three choices, you have a 50% chance of getting the question right.
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GED Science Practice Test 1
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Question 1 of 35
1. Question
1 pointsIn an acid base reaction, an acid reacts with a base to produce water and a salt. The pH scale can be used to describe the acidity of a liquid. Look at the diagram below.
Which two liquids could undergo an acid base reaction?
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It is the only pair of liquids listed in which one is acidic (vinegar—pH 3) and the other basic (bleach—pH 9).
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Question 2 of 35
2. Question
1 pointsAccording to Newton’s laws of motion, an object set in motion remains in motion unless a force acts on it. If you suspend an object from a string and make it swing, the object will swing for a while, then slow down and stop. Why does the suspended object stop swinging?
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The object set in motion slows down and stops swinging because the force of friction acts on it. The kinetic energy of the object is converted to heat energy through friction with air. Statements a, c, and d are true but are not the reason why the object stops swinging. An object having any mass can maintain motion, so the statement in choice b is wrong.
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Question 3 of 35
3. Question
1 pointsIn an exothermic process, heat is released by the process to the surroundings. An example of an exothermic process is burning wood. An endothermic process requires the input of heat from the surroundings. An example of an endothermic process is boiling water. Which of the following is an endothermic process?
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An endothermic process requires the input of heat energy. The only one that requires input of energy (heat) is melting ice (ice melts when heated). The rest of the processes listed give off heat, so they are exothermic.
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Question 4 of 35
4. Question
1 pointsIce floats on water because
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Things that float are less dense than the substance in which they float.
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Question 5 of 35
5. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is NOT true about gravity?
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The statement is false because the gravitational force between two objects depends on the masses of both objects. All the other statements are true and consistent with Newton’s Law of Gravitation
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Question 6 of 35
6. Question
1 pointsChange of phase is a process whereby matter changes form (solid, liquid, gas). Which one of the following constitutes a phase change?
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When water vapor condenses, gas changes to liquid. Choices b, c, and d involve chemical reactions and can’t be considered physical processes. Through exhaling, choice e, air is pushed out of the lungs, but there is no phase change.
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Question 7 of 35
7. Question
1 pointsTwo negatively charged spheres
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Two like charges always repel.
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Question 8 of 35
8. Question
1 pointsWhich statement about energy and/or matter is incorrect?
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The statement is false because energy is not composed of matter (atoms). All other statements are true.
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Question 9 of 35
9. Question
1 pointsThe boiling point in hydrocarbons (molecules containing H and C) increases with increasing molecular weight due to larger intermolecular forces. Which of these hydrocarbons would you expect to have the highest boiling point?
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The molecule in choice e has the most atoms and the largest molecular weight. It therefore has the highest boiling point.
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Question 10 of 35
10. Question
1 pointsPeople wear woolen gloves in the winter because gloves
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Gloves provide insulation. They can’t generate heat, choice a. Gloves left out in the snow would be cold. Gloves can’t have an effect on the temperature, choice b. They also don’t affect the amount of energy your body produces, choice d, or transform energy in any way, choice e.
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Question 11 of 35
11. Question
1 pointsDifferent colors of light correspond to different wavelengths. Wavelengths are often quoted in nanometers (nm). The wavelengths of the visible part of the spectrum are shown in the diagram below.
According to the diagram, blue-green light would most likely have a wavelength of
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The wavelength of blue-green should be between the wavelength of blue light and green light. The wavelength of blue light is about 450 nm and the wavelength of green light is at about 500 nm.Midway between these wavelengths is 470 nm.
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Question 12 of 35
12. Question
1 pointsWhat always stays the same when a chemical reaction takes place?
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The number of atoms stays constant throughout a chemical reaction. The number of molecules can change (choice b). For example, in photosynthesis, 6 molecules of carbon dioxide and 6 molecules of water (total 12 molecules) can react to form 1 molecule of glucose and 6 molecules of oxygen (total of 7 molecules). Similarly, the amount of gas and solid can change (choices c and d). The amount of disorder in the universe is always increasing, so it does not have to stay constant through a reaction (choice e).
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Question 13 of 35
13. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is NOT true about sunlight?
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The statement is false because light has a finite speed. It is very large, but it is not infinite. The rest of the statements are true.
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Question 14 of 35
14. Question
1 pointsIn order to protect themselves from being eaten, animals resort to camouflage and chemical defense. Animals camouflage by mimicking the appearance of their environment. Animals that have chemical defenses contain chemicals noxious to predators. Which of these is NOT an example of camouflage or chemical defense?
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Thorns are a form of defense, but are neither camouflage nor chemical defense. Choices a and e are examples of camouflage. Choices b and c are examples of chemical defense.
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Question 15 of 35
15. Question
1 pointsOsmosis is the movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane in order to equalize the concentration (the amount of protein per milliliter of water) on two sides of the membrane. Consider the diagram below. The container is divided into two compartments, A and B, by a selectively permeable membrane. Each circle represents 100 protein molecules that can’t pass through the membrane. The amount of water on two sides of the membrane is initially equal. What will happen as a result of osmosis?
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The concentration of protein in compartment B is higher. Because of the nature of the membrane, the protein can’t pass through it. The only way for concentration to reach the same level in two compartments is for water to flow from A to B.
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Question 16 of 35
16. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements about human genetics is true?
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Every human normally inherits 23 chromosomes from the mother and 23 chromosomes from the father. However, that doesn’t mean that humans look exactly 50% like the father and 50% like the mother (choice b), since one parent’s genes can be more dominant, and since genes from two parents sometimes produce a blended effect. Fraternal twins happen to be in the womb at the same time, but genetically, they are not any more similar than two siblings who are not twins (choice c). Fraternal twins come from two different eggs fertilized by two different sperm cells. Exposure to X-rays can alter chromosomes (choice d). Genes are not particles. DNA is not an atom and it doesn’t have a nucleus (choice e). Genes are found in the nucleus of a cell and are made of DNA
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Question 17 of 35
17. Question
1 pointsIdentical twins have exactly the same genes. Identical twins result when
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In order for twins to have the same genes, they need to come from one egg and one sperm cell.
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Question 18 of 35
18. Question
1 pointsIn peas, the gene for green color is dominant over the gene for yellow color. We will specify the gene for yellow peas as y, and the gene for green peas as Y. Each pea has two genes for color (one from each parent) and donates only one gene for color to its offspring. Yellow peas have the genotype yy. Any other genotype leads to green peas. Consider the following Punnett square:
The offspring of these two parents
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According to the Punnett square, the combination of genes of Parent I with the genes of Parent II results in either offspring with yy (which is yellow) or Yy (which is green).
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Question 19 of 35
19. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is NOT true?
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The statement is false. Animal cells usually don’t have a cell wall. Other statements are true.
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Question 20 of 35
20. Question
1 pointsIn humans, a pair of chromosomes (one from each parent) determines the sex of the baby. Females have two X chromosomes, while males have an X and a Y chromosome. The baby always gets an X chromosome from the mother, so in humans, the father determines the sex of the baby by supplying it with either an X chromosome to make it female, or a Y chromosome to make it male. In birds, like in humans, a pair of chromosomes determines the sex. Birds with two W chromosomes are male. Birds with a W chromosome and a Z chromosome are female. Which statement is true about birds?
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In humans, the sperm determines the sex of the child because the male has two different chromosomes. In birds, the female has two different chromosomes, so she determines the sex of the offspring. Birds have Ws and Zs, not Xs and Ys like humans, so choice d is incorrect.
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Question 21 of 35
21. Question
1 pointsA species may live in association with another species. Such an arrangement is called symbiosis. Symbiosis in which both species benefit is called mutualism. If the symbiosis is beneficial to one species and neither beneficial nor harmful to the other, it is called commensalism. If one species benefits at the expense of the other, the relationship is called parasitism. A tick that attaches to the skin of a human or animal and feeds on its blood is an example of
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The tick is a parasite. It benefits, while the animal it feeds from suffers.
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Question 22 of 35
22. Question
1 points[Reading for Meaning in Science] Questions 22 through 24 are based on the following passage.
An island in the Adriatic Sea was overpopulated with snakes. Sailors who came to the island brought and let loose mongoose, animals that feed on snakes. The population of snakes started decreasing since the mongooses were eating them. The mongoose population started increasing since there was ample food around. The mongooses were not native to the island and there was no predator on the island to keep the mongoose population in check. At some point, there were hardly any snakes left on the island, and people started populating it. The mongoose, facing a shortage of snakes, started eating chickens that people kept for their eggs and meat. However, people caught on and protected the chickens from getting eaten. The mongoose population decreased. Some remain on the island, but their number is now at equilibrium, kept in check by the availability of food.
The passage illustrates
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Statements a through d were illustrated in the passage. Mongooses depend on snakes for food, choice a. The balance in the ecosystem was disturbed when a new predator was introduced, choice b. Humans entirely changed the ecosystem when they brought the mongooses, choice c.When the population of mongooses increased, the population of snakes decreased, causing a drop in the population of mongooses, choice d.
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Question 23 of 35
23. Question
1 points[Reading for Meaning in Science] Questions 22 through 24 are based on the following passage.
An island in the Adriatic Sea was overpopulated with snakes. Sailors who came to the island brought and let loose mongoose, animals that feed on snakes. The population of snakes started decreasing since the mongooses were eating them. The mongoose population started increasing since there was ample food around. The mongooses were not native to the island and there was no predator on the island to keep the mongoose population in check. At some point, there were hardly any snakes left on the island, and people started populating it. The mongoose, facing a shortage of snakes, started eating chickens that people kept for their eggs and meat. However, people caught on and protected the chickens from getting eaten. The mongoose population decreased. Some remain on the island, but their number is now at equilibrium, kept in check by the availability of food.
There were hardly any snakes left on the island because
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Incorrect
There was no mention of choice b in the passage. Choice c is true, but not as directly related to snake disappearance as choice a. Choice d is false. Sailors did not bring prey for the snakes; they brought a predator. There isn’t enough information to support choice e, and even if it were true, it wouldn’t be directly related to the disappearance of snakes.
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Question 24 of 35
24. Question
1 points[Reading for Meaning in Science] Questions 22 through 24 are based on the following passage.
An island in the Adriatic Sea was overpopulated with snakes. Sailors who came to the island brought and let loose mongoose, animals that feed on snakes. The population of snakes started decreasing since the mongooses were eating them. The mongoose population started increasing since there was ample food around. The mongooses were not native to the island and there was no predator on the island to keep the mongoose population in check. At some point, there were hardly any snakes left on the island, and people started populating it. The mongoose, facing a shortage of snakes, started eating chickens that people kept for their eggs and meat. However, people caught on and protected the chickens from getting eaten. The mongoose population decreased. Some remain on the island, but their number is now at equilibrium, kept in check by the availability of food.
Which statement best describes the change in the population of mongooses on the island?
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There is no support for other statements in the passage.
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Question 25 of 35
25. Question
1 pointsThere are four blood types in humans: A, B, AB, and O. An individual with blood type A has antibodies for B, so he or she can’t receive type B blood. Similarly, a person with blood type B has antibodies for type A and can’t receive type A blood. A person with AB blood type has no antibodies and can receive blood from anyone. A person with type O blood has both A and B antibodies and can receive blood only from someone else with type O blood. Based on this information, someone with type B blood can donate to
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Someone who has blood type B can donate blood to those who don’t have antibodies for B. These include other people with type B blood (they have antibodies for A only) and those with type AB blood (they don’t have any antibodies).
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Question 26 of 35
26. Question
1 pointsTwo main chemicals are responsible for the communication of the brain with the organs you have no conscious control over (heart, digestive system, endocrine system). The chemical norepinephrine helps your body get ready for a fightor-flight action by stirring up energy stores. In contrast, the chemical acetylcholine helps conserve energy by slowing the heart and increasing intestinal absorption. Which of the following situations is least likely to lead to increased levels of norepinephrine?
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Levels of norepinephrine rise when there is a potential for danger, stress, or excitement. Choice c, petting a rabbit, is the only choice that would tend to calm, rather than scare or excite, a person.
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Question 27 of 35
27. Question
1 pointsMost bacteria cannot grow in high concentrations of salt. As a result,
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Salty foods are less prone to bacterial attack because most bacteria can’t grow in environments that are too salty. Being anemic (choice b) is not related to bacteria. Choice c is inconsistent with the question. Choices d and e are not true and are inconsistent with the question.
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Question 28 of 35
28. Question
1 pointsIn the early 19th century, almost all peppered moths collected by biologists in the U.K. were pale and mottled. Only rarely was a collector able to find a dark-peppered moth. After the Industrial Revolution, when furnaces filled the air with dark soot, the light-peppered moth became rare and the dark-peppered moth was most common in industrial cities. A reasonable explanation for this change is that the dark moth was less likely to be seen and eaten by birds against the dark background. This explanation illustrates the principle of
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Natural selection is the process whereby the members of the species who are best able to survive and reproduce in an environment thrive, passing their genes on to next generations. The pollution in the environment selected for darkness in peppered moths.
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Question 29 of 35
29. Question
1 pointsAll of the following are mammals EXCEPT
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Penguins are birds. They hatch from eggs and have wings. They are not mammals; they don’t give birth or breastfeed their young.
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Question 30 of 35
30. Question
1 pointsAll of the following are primates EXCEPT
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Whales are not primates. Primates have five digits on each hand and foot, binocular vision, and flexible shoulder joints.
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Question 31 of 35
31. Question
1 pointsA woman is most likely to get pregnant if she has unprotected sex a few days before and on the day of ovulation, when the egg is released from the ovaries. The release of the egg is hormonally stimulated, meaning that a hormone in the woman’s body triggers ovulation. On average, women ovulate around the 14th day of their menstrual cycle. The following is a graph showing the levels of three hormones throughout the menstrual cycle of an average woman.
Based on the graph, which hormone is most directly responsible for triggering ovulation?
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The graph shows that the level of LH rapidly rises right before the 14th day of the cycle, and then falls.
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Question 32 of 35
32. Question
1 pointsAs the pressure of a gas increases at a constant temperature, the volume of the gas decreases.
If you were a diver and you wanted to take an oxygen tank with you, what would you do?
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A diver would want to take a lot of oxygen without letting the tank get too bulky. Other choices are either false (choices d and e) or not a major concern (choices b and c).
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Question 33 of 35
33. Question
1 pointsThe amount of solute that can be dissolved in a solvent at a given temperature is called solubility. For most substances, solubility increases with temperature. Rock candy can be made from sugar solutions that have an excess of sugar dissolved. The amount of sugar per 100 grams of water at a given temperature has to be higher than the amount that is normally soluble in order to make rock candy. Based on the solubility of sugar in water as a function of temperature, plotted in the graph, how much sugar would you need to dissolve in 100 grams of water to make rock candy at 40° C?
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Incorrect
According to the graph, at 40° C, about 250 grams of sugar can be normally dissolved in 100 grams of water. In order to make rock candy, this amount has to be exceeded.
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Question 34 of 35
34. Question
1 pointsQuestions 34 and 35 are based on the following passage.
In 1628, English physician William Harvey established that the blood circulates throughout the body. He recognized that the heart acts as a pump and does not work by using up blood as earlier anatomists thought. To carefully observe the beating of the heart and the direction of blood flow, Harvey needed to see the works of the blood in slow motion. Since there was no way for him to observe a human heart in slow motion, he studied the hearts of toads and snakes, rather than the rapidly beating hearts of “warm-blooded” mammals and birds. By keeping these animals cool, he could slow their hearts down. The main argument for his conclusion that the blood circulates stemmed from his measurement of the amount of blood pumped with each heartbeat. He calculated that the amount of blood pumped each hour by far exceeds the total amount of blood in the body and proved that the same blood passes through the heart over and over again.
What misconception did scientists harbor before Harvey’s study?
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The passage explained that other scientists at the time mistakenly thought that the heart uses up blood. Choices a, b, and e are not misconceptions. Choice d was not mentioned in the passage.
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Question 35 of 35
35. Question
1 pointsQuestions 34 and 35 are based on the following passage.
In 1628, English physician William Harvey established that the blood circulates throughout the body. He recognized that the heart acts as a pump and does not work by using up blood as earlier anatomists thought. To carefully observe the beating of the heart and the direction of blood flow, Harvey needed to see the works of the blood in slow motion. Since there was no way for him to observe a human heart in slow motion, he studied the hearts of toads and snakes, rather than the rapidly beating hearts of “warm-blooded” mammals and birds. By keeping these animals cool, he could slow their hearts down. The main argument for his conclusion that the blood circulates stemmed from his measurement of the amount of blood pumped with each heartbeat. He calculated that the amount of blood pumped each hour by far exceeds the total amount of blood in the body and proved that the same blood passes through the heart over and over again.
Which of the following did Harvey do?
I. Observe the heartbeat and blood flow in snakes and frogs.
II. Determine that the heart acts as a pump.
III. Count the number of blood cells that pass through the heart every hour.
IV. Show that the blood circulates.Correct
Incorrect
The passage explained that Harvey did I, II, and IV. Although he also calculated the amount of blood that passes through the heart every hour, he did not count the blood cells one by one (III), nor did he have the technology to do that.
See also
- GED Practice Test 2023
- GED Math Practice Test 1
- GED Math Practice Test 2
- GED Math Practice Test 3
- GED Social Studies Practice Test 1
- GED Social Studies Practice Test 2
- GED Science Practice Test 1
- GED Science Practice Test 2