GED Science Test 2020 Sample Question Answers Free PDF

GED Science Test 2020 Sample Question Answers: Download free printable PDF for your General Educational Development (GED) Science Practice Test prep online. Our sample test will help to make better GED Test Prep online.

Read the questions carefully and choose the best answer for each question. Some questions may refer to a passage, illustration, or graph. Be sure to answer every question; you will not be penalized for incorrect answers. Do not spend too much time on any one question so you can be sure to complete all the questions in the allotted time.

When answering multiple-choice questions, make sure you have read the question carefully. Often, the question will ask you to chose a statement that is NOT true or find an exception to the rule.

GED Science Test 2020

Test Name GED Practice Test
Test Topics GED Science
Total Question 40
Question Type Sample MCQs
Answers Yes
Explanation YES
Printable PDF YES

GED Science Sample Question Answers

Q1. A solar eclipse occurs when the moon blocks our view of the sun. Select the diagram that best represents the position of the sun, the Earth, and the moon during a solar eclipse, as well as the correct orbits

View Correct Answer
 Answer: A

This diagram corresponds to the correct arrangement of Earth, moon, and the sun during a solar eclipse. The moon is located between
the Earth and the sun, blocking the Earth’s view of the sun. It also corresponds to the correct orbits, with the moon orbiting around the
Earth, and the Earth around the sun. Choice b is wrong because it shows the sun orbiting around the Earth, and the moon around the sun. Choice c is wrong because the Earth, moon, and sun are not aligned as they should be during an eclipse, and the moon is not orbiting around the Earth. Choice d shows correct orbits, but the moon is not blocking the sun from the Earth’s view. In fact, choice d corresponds to a lunar eclipse. Choice e is wrong because it shows the Earth and the sun orbiting around the moon.

Q2. Convection currents of molten rock within the Earth mantle cause all the following EXCEPT

  • A). sunlight.
  • B). movement of plates on Earth’s crust.
  • C). volcanic eruptions.
  • D). earthquakes.
  • E). flow of molten rock from cracks along the bottom of the ocean.
View Correct Answer
 Answer: A

Sunlight is caused by nuclear reactions on the sun, not by convection currents of molten rock within the Earth mantle.

Q3. Which of the following does NOT cause changes in the Earth’s surface, such as the formation of mountains and valleys?

  • A). collision of plates
  • B). moving apart of plates
  • C). volcanic eruptions
  • D). erosion
  • E). ozone
View Correct Answer
 Answer: E

Ozone cannot directly change the surface of the Earth. Processes in a through d can.

Q4.The United States is in the Northern Hemisphere. Which statement(s) about the Southern Hemisphere is true?

I). It is always warm in the Southern Hemisphere.

II). When it’s summer in the Northern Hemisphere, it is winter in the Southern Hemisphere.

III). In the Southern Hemisphere, the sun sets in the east.

IV). When it’s winter in the Northern Hemisphere, it is summer in the SouthernHemisphere.

  • A). statement I only
  • B). statement II only
  • C). statements II, III, and IV
  • D). statements II and IV
  • E). statements I, II, and IV
View Correct Answer
 Answer: D

When it’s summer in the Northern Hemisphere, it is winter in the Southern Hemisphere, and vice versa (choices II and IV). On average, the
Southern Hemisphere is not warmer than Northern Hemisphere (choice I). The sun always sets in the west, everywhere on Earth.

Q5. Humidity is a measure of

  • A). air temperature.
  • B). the amount of water vapor in air.
  • C). air pressure.
  • D). cloudiness.
  • E). air resistance.
View Correct Answer
 Answer: B

Humidity is a measure of the amount of water vapor in air.

Q6. The Milky Way is estimated to be about 100,000 light-years across its larger diameter. A light-year is a measure of

  • A). time since the Big Bang.
  • B). distance.
  • C). brightness.
  • D). the number of stars in a galaxy.
  • E). speed of light.
View Correct Answer
 Answer: B

A light-year is a measure of the distance that light travels in a year (about 5.88 trillion miles).

Questions 7 and 8 are based on the following passage

According to scientists, the sun has existed for 4.6 billion years. The sun produces energy by a nuclear conversion of hydrogen into helium.
When hydrogen runs out, according to this theory, the sun will expand, engulfing Earth and other planets. Not to worry—the expansion will not affect us, since the sun has enough hydrogen for another 4.6 billion years. When it expands, the sun will become what is called a red giant star. In another 500 million years, the sun will shrink to the current size of the Earth and will be called a white dwarf, cooling down for several billion years.

Q7. According to the passage, the sun will eventually

  • A). expand and then shrink.
  • B). shrink and then expand
  • C). shrink and then run out of helium.
  • D). expand because it ran out of helium.
  • E). shrink because it ran out of hydrogen.
View Correct Answer
 Answer: A

The passage states that the sun will first expand (not shrink—choices b, c, and e) when it runs out of hydrogen (not helium—choice d), and
then 500 million years later, it will shrink.

Q8. Based on this theory, the sun will, at some point, be a

  • A). blue star.
  • B). red dwarf star
  • C). white dwarf star.
  • D). asteroid.
  • E). galaxy.
View Correct Answer
 Answer: C

Choice c is the correct answer based on the passage.

Q9. Webbed feet enable ducks to swim better by

  • A). making the ducks aerodynamic.
  • B). increasing the surface area with which ducks propel water
  • C). preventing particles from being stuck between the duck’s toes.
  • D). making the duck less dense
  • E). increasing the rate of heat loss, so that ducks can cool down faster.
View Correct Answer
 Answer: B

Webbed feet enable ducks to swim better by increasing the surface area on their feet. In swimming, being hydrodynamic, not aerodynamic,
is important (choice a). Stuck particles between a duck’s toes, choice c, would most likely not be a frequent problem. Webbed feet would not affect the duck’s density, choice d, by much. The rate of heat loss, choice e, maybe slightly higher because of the larger surface area, but heat loss is not essential for swimming.

Q10. Determine how much water is in the graduated cylinder drawn below by reading the bottom of the meniscus (surface of water).

  • A). 3.0 ml
  • B). 5.5 ml
  • C). 6.5 ml
  • D). 7.5 ml
  • E). 10.0 ml
View Correct Answer
 Answer: D

The top division on the graduated cylinder is the 10 ml mark. There are 10 divisions, so each one is 1 ml. The bottom of the meniscus is
between 7 ml and 8 ml, so 7.5 ml is the best answer.

Q11. In addition to magnifying the image of an object, a microscope inverts the image left to right. The image of the object observed through the microscope is also upside down. Looking through the eyepiece, you would therefore see the upside-down mirror image of the object under the microscope lens. What would the object below look like if observed through the microscope?

View Correct Answer
 Answer: B

This is what the object looks like when it is inverted left to right (mirror image).When the object is flipped upside down, there is no change
in its appearance.

Q12. Which one of the following statements is an opinion, rather than a fact? 

  • A). All organisms are made of one or more cells.
  • B). It’s wrong to kill any organism.
  • C). All organisms need energy
  • D). Some organisms reproduce asexually.
  • E). Some organisms can breathe underwater.
View Correct Answer
 Answer: B

This is a statement that can’t be tested by scientific means. All the others can.

Q13. Here are a few experimental observations and known facts:

I. A scummy substance often forms in solutions of an amino acid in water.
II. When the water is purified and exposed to UV radiation, the scummy substance does not form in the amino acid solution.
III. UV radiation kills bacteria.

What would be a valid hypothesis based on I, II and III?

  • A). The scummy substance is a form of the amino acid.
  • B). The scummy substance would not appear if water were treated by a method, other than UV radiation, that kills bacteria
  • C). The scummy substance is caused by organisms that humans are unable to detect.
  • D). The amino acid would not form the scummy substance in another galaxy
  • E). UV light contributes to global warming.
View Correct Answer
 Answer: B

Choice a is not consistent with observation II. Choices c and d are not testable and are therefore invalid. Choice e is not relevant to the
observations.

Q14. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a condition that can lead to heart attack and stroke. A scientist graphed the following data collected from a study on hypertension. What is a logical conclusion based on the data?

  • A). The prevalence of hypertension is higher than average in the 35–44 age group.
  • B). The prevalence of hypertension is highest in the 45–54 age group.
  • C). The prevalence of hypertension increases with age.
  • D). No teenager suffers from hypertension.
  • E). . All senior citizens suffer from hypertension.
View Correct Answer
 Answer: C

This is the only statement supported by the graph.

Q15. The following pie chart illustrates the relative productivity (new plant material produced in one year) of different biomes. Based on the chart, which biome has the largest effect on the overall productivity?

  • A). chaparral
  • B). savanna
  • C). tropical rain forest
  • D). desert
  • E). temperate deciduous forest
View Correct Answer
 Answer: C

Tropical rain forests are the most productive.

Q16. In 1969, two scientists devised an experiment to test a hypothesis that the number of species in an ecosystem depends on the area of the ecosystem. They counted all the arthropod species on a few very tiny islands. They then exterminated all the arthropods (mostly insects) with a pesticide. Over six months, they monitored the gradual repopulation of the island and noticed that by the end of the observation period, each island had almost the same number of species as it had before pesticide was used. However, the kinds of species that arrived often differed from the
species that were on the island prior to pesticide use. Here is a chart that illustrates the results.

Based on the chart, which trophic level suffered the greatest net loss (number of species) in diversity?

  • A). herbivores
  • B). scavengers
  • C). detrivores
  • D). wood borers
  • E). ants
View Correct Answer
 Answer: E

The number of species lost was greatest in ants.

Questions 17 and 18 are based on the following passage.

A science student hypothesized that the rate of evaporation of water depends on the shape of the container the water is placed in. She decided to measure the amount of water evaporated when 300 ml of water in five different containers was heated from room temperature to 90° C on preheated hot plates. She used five cylindrical 500-milliliter glass containers, each having the same wall thickness but a different base radius and height. In other words, some containers were narrow and tall, others were wide and shallow. The following table lists the dimensions of the containers and the amount of water initially present.

She placed each container, containing the same amount of water, on a hot plate, and placed a thermometer in each to monitor the temperature. She noticed that the temperature was increasing faster in the containers with a larger radius. After some time, the temperature in the 10-cm radius container reached the set 90° C. Following container 5, the water in containers 4, 3, 2, and 1, in that order, reached the set temperature. The student checked the volume of the water in each container and found that it was lower than 300 ml. She also found that
the decrease in volume was highest in the container with the largest radius. In container 1, volume decrease was barely detectable.

Q17.What can the student conclude from the data?

  • A). The greater the radius of the container, the lower the rate of evaporation.
  • B). The greater the radius of the container, the higher the rate of evaporation.
  • C). The radius of the container is not related to the rate of evaporation.
  • D). The greater the radius of the container, the slower it reaches the set temperature.
  • E). The smaller the radius of the container, the faster it reaches the set temperature.
View Correct Answer
 Answer: B

“She also found that the decrease in volume was highest in the container with the largest radius. In container 1, volume decrease was barely
detectable.” Choice d and e are false because the container with the larger radius reached the set temperature faster.

Q18. Which two statements are valid objections to the experimental setup?

I. All the containers were filled with the same amount of water.
II. A different hot plate was used to heat water in different containers.
III. Water in different containers was heated for different amounts of time.
IV. The containers were not filled completely

  • A). I and II
  • B). I and III
  • C). I and IV
  • D). II and III
  • E). II and IV
View Correct Answer
 Answer: D

There is nothing wrong with I and IV. Using different hot plates can have an effect because some hot plates may be heating more efficiently
than others. Heating water in all the containers for the same amount of time, rather than up to a fixed temperature, would be better because the rate of evaporation is the amount of water lost per unit of time. By using different times, the student is changing an important variable.

Q19. The following graph shows how the concentration (amount per unit volume) changes with
time. What information can be obtained from the data?

  • A). The amount of reactant does not change with time
  • B). The amount of product is decreasing
  • C). The amount of reactant first decreases and then stays constant.
  • D). After 500 seconds, all of the reactant is used.
  • E). At 300 seconds, the concentration of the reactant is at maximum.
View Correct Answer
 Answer: C

Choice a is wrong because initially, the concentration decreases. There is no information about the product on the chart, so choice b is incorrect. Choice d is wrong because at 500 seconds, the concentration is not zero. Choice e is wrong because at 300 seconds, the concentration is lower than at other times, at the start of the experiment.

Questions 20 and 21 are based on the following passage

Is Pluto a Planet?
Based on perturbations in Neptune’s orbit, the search for a ninth planet was conducted and Pluto was discovered in 1930. Pluto orbits the sun just like the other eight planets, and it has a moon, Charon, and a stable orbit. Based on its distance from the sun, Pluto should be grouped with the planets known as gas giants. In addition, Pluto, like the planet Mercury, has little or no atmosphere. Pluto is definitely not a comet because it does not have a tail like a comet when it is near the sun. Pluto is also not an asteroid, although its density is closer to an
asteroid than to any of the other planets. Pluto is a planet because it has been classified as one for more than sixty years since its discovery

Q20. Which argument supporting the classification of Pluto as a planet is the weakest?

  • A). Pluto orbits the sun just like the other eight planets.
  • B). Pluto has a moon.
  • C). Pluto has a stable orbit.
  • D). Pluto, like the planet Mercury, has little or no atmosphere.
  • E). Pluto has been classified as a planet for more than sixty years since the discovery.
View Correct Answer
 Answer: E

This is the weakest argument because it is justified with authority, tradition, and past belief, rather than scientific facts. People have been
wrong in the past, and noting that something has been done a certain way for years does not mean that there are no better ways, and it is not
a convincing scientific argument.

Q21. Which one of the following statements is NOT backed with an explanation?

  • A). Pluto is like a planet.
  • B). Pluto should be grouped with planets known as gas giants.
  • C). Pluto is like Mercury.
  • D). Pluto is not a comet.
  • E). Pluto is not an asteroid.
View Correct Answer
 Answer: E

The passage states that Pluto’s density is closer to an asteroid’s than to any of the planets’. This would lead the reader to think that Pluto, based on its density, maybe an asteroid. But the passage states that this is not the case and does not give arguments to support the statement. The statements in all other choices are supported by facts.

Q22. The instrument shown in this picture can be used to study

  • A). cell organelles.
  • B). the flight pattern of birds.
  • C). the movement of stars in other galaxies.
  • D). old manuscripts.
  • E). human vision defects.
View Correct Answer
 Answer: B

Binoculars are used to view objects or animals in the distance. They don’t have the kind of magnification necessary for studies in choices a,
c, d, and e.

Q23. A large surface area results in a high rate of cooling. This is why we tend to curl up when we sleep in a cold room and spread our limbs out when we sleep in a very hot room. Which of the following is an example where this principle is used in technology?

  • A). Refrigerators can be used to cool containers of milk with large surface areas.
  • B). Fans that cool computers are often ribbed to increase the surface area for cooling.
  • C). Airplanes are shaped to minimize heat loss in the cabin
  • D). Heat packs are designed to have a large surface area.
  • E). Microwave ovens are designed to completely close during food preparation.
View Correct Answer
 Answer:  B

Choices a and e are not relevant. Choices c and d are false.

Q24. The amount of dissolved gas in a liquid solution depends on the pressure of the gas. Under a high pressure, greater amounts of gas can be dissolved. The pressure is used to increase the solubility of carbon dioxide gas in

  • A). fish ponds
  • B). cereals.
  • C). carbonated drinks.
  • D). milk.
  • E). gasoline.
View Correct Answer
 Answer: C

The soda bubbles you see when you open a can are made of carbon dioxide gas that was dissolved in the soda under pressure. The pressure is not used to dissolve carbon dioxide in any of the substances described in the other choices.

Questions 25 and 26 are based on the following diagram.

Q25. This instrument is used to

  • A). determine the direction of the wind.
  • B). determine the directions of the world.
  • C). find the nearest piece of land when navigating the seas.
  • D). find underground waters.
  • E). determine the direction of water flow.
View Correct Answer
 Answer: B

The instrument is a compass, used to find directions of the world.

Q26. This instrument works because

  • A). it has an internal clock.
  • B). the needle points to the direction of minimum pressure
  • C). the needle changes position depending on the position of the sun.
  • D). the Earth has two magnetic poles.
  • E). the temperatures on Earth’s poles are very low.
View Correct Answer
 Answer: D

The needle on the compass responds to the Earth’s magnetic poles.

Questions 27 and 28 are based on the following passage

Farm animals can carry salmonella, a kind of bacteria that can cause severe food poisoning. However, animals fed antibiotics can carry especially deadly strains of salmonella. In Minnesota in 1983, 11 people were hospitalized with salmonella poisoning. This number itself was not striking at all. Forty thousand Americans are hospitalized with salmonella poisoning every year. What was striking about the cases in Minnesota was that each patient had severe symptoms and all the patients were infected with the same, rare strain of salmonella, resistant to several common antibiotics. A young scientist, Scott Holmberg, noted that eight patients were taking the same antibiotics for sore throats. He ruled out the possibility that the antibiotics themselves were infected with the bacteria because three of the patients were not taking antibiotics at all. He later showed that the people were infected with salmonella prior to taking the antibiotics, but that the antibiotics triggered the onset of salmonella poisoning. He postulated that salmonella suddenly flourished when the patients took antibiotics because the antibiotics killed off all other competing bacteria. He was also able to trace the antibiotic resistant salmonella to the beef that was imported to Minnesota from a farm in South Dakota, at which cattle were routinely fed antibiotics and at which one calf died of the same strain of salmonella.

Q27. As a result of this finding, the Food and Drug Administration should

  • A). carefully regulate the prescription of antibiotics for sore throats.
  • B). prevent the export of meat from South Dakota to Minnesota.
  • C). limit the practice of feeding antibiotics to cattle.
  • D). take the antibiotic that caused salmonella off the market.
  • E). require a special prescription for antibiotics resistant to salmonella.
View Correct Answer
 Answer: C

Choice a is already being done, and since the antibiotics weren’t directly making people ill (choice e), these measures wouldn’t be necessary.
There is nothing that indicates that all meat from South Dakota has salmonella or that meat from everywhere else is always healthy, so
choice b would not be necessary. Choice d is wrong because antibiotics are not resistant to salmonella; some salmonella is resistant to
antibiotics.

Q28. Based on the passage, which one of the following statements is false?

  • A). Salmonella poisoning is a common bacterial infection.
  • B). Some strands of bacteria are resistant to antibiotics.
  • C). Antibiotics kill off bacteria that are not resistant to antibiotics.
  • D). Antibiotics transmit salmonella.
  • E). Farm animals can carry salmonella.
View Correct Answer
 Answer: D

The statement, as noted in the previous question, is false.

Questions 29 through 31 are based on the passage below and the table is even below.

Minerals are an important component of the human diet. Some minerals are needed in relatively large amounts. These include calcium, phosphorus, potassium, sulfur, chlorine, and magnesium. Others, including iron, manganese, and iodine, are needed in smaller amounts. Humans need 26 minerals all together, but some of them are only required in tiny amounts. Some minerals, such as lead and selenium, are harmful in large quantities. Dietary supplements can decrease the chance of mineral deficiencies listed in the table below, but should be taken with great care, since overdose can lead to poisoning.

Q29. Taking several iron supplements per day can

  • A). decrease the chance of bone loss.
  • B). make you stronger.
  • C). help relieve PMS symptoms.
  • D). cause poisoning.
  • E). make up for an unbalanced diet.
View Correct Answer
 Answer: D

Taking too many minerals can lead to poisoning. None of the other choices was discussed in the passage or listed in the table.

Q30. Which of the minerals listed in the table are you most likely lacking if you experience irregular heartbeat?

  • A). sodium
  • B). potassium
  • C). calcium
  • D). phosphorous
  • E). magnesium
View Correct Answer
 Answer: B

No other mineral deficiency has this symptom.

Q31. Which two minerals are necessary for formation of healthy bones and teeth?

  • A). calcium and magnesium
  • B). calcium and phosphorous
  • C). calcium and potassium
  • D). calcium and sodium
  • E). sodium and magnesium
View Correct Answer
 Answer: B

The table lists that the function of both calcium and phosphorous is the formation of healthy bones and teeth.

Q32. Which of the following is the most common result of prolonged excessive alcohol consumption?

  • A). heart attack
  • B). brain tumor
  • C). lung cancer
  • D). liver damage
  • E). cataracts
View Correct Answer
 Answer: D

While alcohol damages other tissues as well, most alcoholics first experience liver failure. One of the functions of the liver is to rid the
body of toxins. Alcohol is a toxin to the body.

Q33. Which of the following could be transmitted through kissing?

  • A). lung cancer
  • B). brain tumor
  • C). flu
  • D). diabetes
  • E). Down’s syndrome
View Correct Answer
 Answer: C

Only certain contagious diseases can be transmitted through kissing. Health problems associated with the other choices are not contagious.
One can’t get lung cancer, a brain tumor, diabetes, or Down’s syndrome by kissing someone who has it.

Q34. Through friction, energy of motion is converted to heat. You use this in your favor when you

  • A). wear gloves to make your hands warm.
  • B). rub your hands together to make them warm.
  • C). soak your hands with hot water to make them warm.
  • D). place your hands near a fireplace to make them warm.
  • E). hold a cup of tea to make your hands warm.
View Correct Answer
 Answer: B

Only the action in choice b involves friction (of one hand against the other).

Q35. The boiling point of water decreases with increasing pressure. At high altitudes, the atmospheric pressure is lower than at sea level. Where would you expect to find the highest boiling point temperature of water?

  • A). in the Grand Canyon Valley
  • B). at sea level
  • C). at the base of Mount Everest
  • D). at the top of Mount Everest
  • E). at the top of a small hill
View Correct Answer
 Answer: D

The boiling point decreases with increasing pressure. So, the lower the pressure, the higher the boiling point. At high altitudes, the atmospheric pressure is low, so the boiling point should be higher at higher altitudes. The highest altitude listed is at the top of Mount Everest

36. Which of the following energy sources causes the least pollution to the environment?

  • A). coal
  • B). nuclear power
  • C). gasoline
  • D). solar
  • E). oil
View Correct Answer
 Answer: D

There is no pollution or waste associated with solar energy.

Questions 37 and 78 are based on the following passage.

Radiation from radioisotopes can be used to kill cancer cells. Chemist Marie Curie received two Nobel Prizes for her work with radioisotopes. Her work led to the discovery of the neutron and synthesis of artificial radioactive elements. She died of leukemia at 67, caused by extensive exposure to radiation. Curie never believed that radium and other materials she worked with were a health hazard. In World War I, glowing
radium was used on watch dials to help soldiers read their watches in the dark and to synchronize their attacks. Unfortunately, women who worked in factories were drawing their radium stained brushes to fine points by putting them between their lips. As a result, their teeth would glow in the dark. But this was an amusement for children more than a cause of worry. About ten years later, the women developed cancer in their jaws and mouths and had problems making blood cells. This exposed the dangers of radiation.

Q37. Based on the information in the passage, which statement about radioisotopes is false?

  • A). Radioisotopes can kill cancer cells.
  • B). Radioisotopes can cause cancer.
  • C). A radioisotope can glow in the dark.
  • D). Einstein received the Nobel Prize for working with isotopes.
  • E). A radioisotope was used in watch dials.
View Correct Answer
 Answer: D

There was no mention of Einstein in the passage. All the other statements were made.

Q38. Which dangers of radiation were mentioned in the passage?
I. Radiation can cause genetic mutations.
II. Radiation can lead to leukemia.
III. Radiation can cause chemotherapy.

  • A). danger I only
  • B). danger II only
  • C). danger III only
  • D). dangers I and II
  • E). dangers II and III
View Correct Answer
 Answer: B

Danger II was mentioned in the passage. Curie died of leukemia because of lifelong exposure to radiation. The danger I is true but was not discussed in the passage. Danger III is false; radiation does not cause chemotherapy. Radiation is applied in chemotherapy.

Questions 39 and 40 are based on the following passage.

In the past, people thought that the Earth was flat and that a ship that sailed too far would fall off the edge of the world. The Earth appears flat because the Earth is too large for humans on Earth to see its curvature. Several events helped shed the misconceptions. For one, during a lunar eclipse, the Earth is positioned between the sun and the moon. It eclipses the moon by casting a shadow on it. The shadow the Earth casts is round. When Magellan circumnavigated the Earth, he proved that one could not fall off the edge of the Earth, because the Earth was round and had no edges. Finally, space missions provided us with images of our round Earth from far away and showed us how beautiful our planet looks, even from a distance.

Q39. In the passage, what was cited as proof that the Earth is round?
I. Earth casts a round shadow on the moon during a lunar eclipse.
II. Earth revolves around the sun.
III. Magellan circumnavigated the Earth.
IV. images from space

  • A). I and II
  • B). I, II, and III
  • C). I, II, and IV
  • D). I, III, and IV
  • E). II, III, and IV
View Correct Answer
 Answer: D

Statements I, III, and IV were made in the passage. Statement II is true, but it does not prove that the Earth is round and was not discussed in the passage.

Q40. With which misconception about the Earth is the passage concerned?

  • A). that the Earth turned
  • B). that the Earth was in the center of the solar system
  • C). that the Earth was flat
  • D). that the Earth was created at the same time as the sun
  • E). that the Earth could be eclipsed by the sun
View Correct Answer
 Answer: C

The whole passage is focused on listing evidence that the Earth is round, not flat. Choice a is not a misconception. Choices b, d, and e were not discussed in the passage.

Free Download GED Science Practice Test PDF

Document Type Download Link
Free Editable Doc File
Free Printable PDF File

Check official page for more information https://ged.com/about_test/test_subjects/science/