Last Updated on June 15, 2024
PTCB Practice Test on Federal Requirements 2024 [UPDATED]. Pharmacy Technician Certification Board PTCB Practice Test on Federal Requirements Questions Answers with explanation for Certified Pharmacy Technician (CPhT).
Prepare for the PTCB (Pharmacy Technician Certification Board) exam with our comprehensive PTCB Practice Test on Federal Requirements for 2024. This updated test includes 30 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) designed to help you master essential topics and improve your chances of success. Each question is accompanied by a detailed explanation to enhance your understanding and retention.
PTCB Practice Test on Federal Requirements 2024
Our PTCB Practice Test on Federal Requirements 2024 is essential for anyone preparing for the certification exam. With up-to-date content and thorough explanations, you’ll be well-equipped to tackle the challenges of the PTCB exam and advance your pharmacy technician career.
1. Which of the following schedules of controlled substances has no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse?
- (A) Schedule I
- (B) Schedule II
- (C) Schedule III
- (D) Schedule IV
2. Which drug is an example of a Schedule II controlled substance?
- (A) Ketamine
- (B) Morphine
- (C) Diazepam
- (D) Codeine with acetaminophen
3. Which schedule of controlled substances has a low to moderate potential for abuse, less than Schedule I and II?
- (A) Schedule I
- (B) Schedule II
- (C) Schedule III
- (D) Schedule IV
4. Which of the following is a requirement for a controlled substance prescription?
- (A) Prescriber’s full name and address
- (B) Patient’s phone number
- (C) Pharmacist’s DEA number
- (D) Pharmacy’s address
5. What must be written on a Schedule II prescription that is partially filled if the remaining quantity cannot be provided within 72 hours?
- (A) Void
- (B) Emergency
- (C) Partial fill
- (D) Refill
6. Which DEA form is used to report the loss or theft of controlled substances?
- (A) DEA Form 41
- (B) DEA Form 106
- (C) DEA Form 222
- (D) DEA Form 224
7. Which schedule of controlled substances is generally used for antitussive, analgesic, and antidiarrheal purposes?
- (A) Schedule II
- (B) Schedule III
- (C) Schedule IV
- (D) Schedule V
8. Which of the following is a Schedule IV controlled substance?
- (A) Lorazepam
- (B) Testosterone
- (C) Amphetamine with dextroamphetamine
- (D) Hydrocodone
9. What is required for a prescriber to be able to prescribe controlled substances?
- (A) State medical license
- (B) DEA number
- (C) National Provider Identifier (NPI)
- (D) Pharmacy Technician Certification
10. Which form is used to order Schedule I or II controlled substances?
- (A) DEA Form 41
- (B) DEA Form 106
- (C) DEA Form 222
- (D) DEA Form 224
11. Which controlled substance schedule includes drugs like anabolic steroids and ketamine?
- (A) Schedule I
- (B) Schedule II
- (C) Schedule III
- (D) Schedule IV
12. How often must a pharmacy renew its DEA registration?
- (A) Every year
- (B) Every two years
- (C) Every three years
- (D) Every five years
13. Which of the following is required to be on the label of a dispensed controlled substance?
- (A) Patient’s birthdate
- (B) “Caution: Federal law prohibits the transfer of this drug to any person other than the patient for whom it was prescribed.”
- (C) Prescriber’s DEA number
- (D) Pharmacy technician’s initials
14. What is the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005 (CMEA) primarily concerned with?
- (A) Limiting the sale of pseudoephedrine, phenylpropanolamine, and ephedrine-containing products
- (B) Regulating the sale of opioid medications
- (C) Controlling the distribution of anabolic steroids
- (D) Monitoring the prescription of benzodiazepines
15. What is the primary purpose of Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies (REMS)?
- (A) To promote the use of generic medications
- (B) To ensure medications are stored properly
- (C) To prevent, monitor, and manage the risks of certain medications
- (D) To facilitate the transfer of prescriptions between pharmacies
16. Which of the following drugs requires a REMS program due to its potential for causing severe neutropenia?
- (A) Isotretinoin
- (B) Thalidomide
- (C) Clozapine
- (D) Amiodarone
17. Which DEA form is used for the destruction of outdated or damaged controlled substances?
- (A) DEA Form 41
- (B) DEA Form 106
- (C) DEA Form 222
- (D) DEA Form 224
18. What is required for the transfer of a Schedule III, IV, or V prescription to another pharmacy?
- (A) The original prescription must be mailed to the new pharmacy
- (B) The original prescription must be voided
- (C) A new prescription must be issued
- (D) The patient must visit both pharmacies
19. Which controlled substance schedule includes drugs with a low potential for abuse and dependence?
- (A) Schedule I
- (B) Schedule II
- (C) Schedule III
- (D) Schedule IV
20. What must be done if a controlled substance prescription is issued in an emergency situation?
- (A) The patient must sign a waiver
- (B) The pharmacy must obtain a written prescription within seven days
- (C) The prescriber must call the DEA
- (D) The prescription must be labeled as “emergency”
21. How many times can a Schedule III, IV, or V prescription be transferred to another pharmacy?
- (A) Once only
- (B) Twice
- (C) Three times
- (D) Unlimited
22. Which information is NOT required on a prescription for a controlled substance?
- (A) Patient’s full name and address
- (B) Prescriber’s DEA number
- (C) Drug name and strength
- (D) Patient’s insurance information
23. What is the maximum amount of pseudoephedrine a customer can purchase in a day under the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act?
- (A) 1.8 grams
- (B) 2.4 grams
- (C) 3.6 grams
- (D) 4.5 grams
24. Which controlled substance schedule includes drugs like pregabalin (Lyrica)?
- (A) Schedule II
- (B) Schedule III
- (C) Schedule IV
- (D) Schedule V
25. How should Schedule II controlled substances be stored in a pharmacy?
- (A) In a locked drawer
- (B) On an open shelf
- (C) Within a vault or safe
- (D) In the refrigerator
26. What information must be included when a Schedule II controlled substance is received by a pharmacy?
- (A) Prescriber’s signature
- (B) Patient’s full name
- (C) Red C stamped on the invoice
- (D) DEA Form 41
27. Which of the following is a requirement for ordering Schedule III–V controlled substances?
- (A) DEA Form 222
- (B) DEA Form 106
- (C) Standard ordering through the wholesaler or manufacturer
- (D) DEA Form 224
28. Which of the following drugs is classified as a Schedule IV controlled substance?
- (A) Hydromorphone (Dilaudid)
- (B) Zolpidem (Ambien)
- (C) Codeine with acetaminophen (Tylenol 3)
- (D) Oxycodone (Oxycontin)
29. What is the purpose of a med guide in the context of REMS?
- (A) To promote generic medication use
- (B) To educate patients on how to avoid serious adverse effects
- (C) To provide detailed information about the drug’s cost
- (D) To ensure the drug is stored properly
30. Which of the following statements is true regarding DEA numbers for prescribers?
- (A) The first letter indicates the prescriber’s last name
- (B) The second letter is the first letter of the prescriber’s first name
- (C) The second letter is the first letter of the prescriber’s last name
- (D) The first letter indicates the type of medication
See also:
Knowledge Domains and Areas
- Medication Practice Test
- Federal Requirements Practice Test
- Patient Safety and Quality Assurance Practice Test
- Order Entry and Processing Practice Test
Free Practice test
- PTCB Pretest Question Answers
- Free PTCB Practice Test 1
- Free PTCB Practice Test 2
- Free PTCB Practice Test 3