PTCB Practice Test on Federal Requirements 2024 [UPDATED]

PTCB Practice Test on Federal Requirements 2024 [UPDATED]. Pharmacy Technician Certification Board PTCB Practice Test on Federal Requirements Questions Answers with explanation for Certified Pharmacy Technician (CPhT).

Prepare for the PTCB (Pharmacy Technician Certification Board) exam with our comprehensive PTCB Practice Test on Federal Requirements for 2024. This updated test includes 30 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) designed to help you master essential topics and improve your chances of success. Each question is accompanied by a detailed explanation to enhance your understanding and retention.

PTCB Practice Test on Federal Requirements 2024

Our PTCB Practice Test on Federal Requirements 2024 is essential for anyone preparing for the certification exam. With up-to-date content and thorough explanations, you’ll be well-equipped to tackle the challenges of the PTCB exam and advance your pharmacy technician career.

1. Which of the following schedules of controlled substances has no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse?

  • (A) Schedule I
  • (B) Schedule II
  • (C) Schedule III
  • (D) Schedule IV

View Answer
Answer: (A) Explanation: Schedule I drugs have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse, such as heroin and LSD.

2. Which drug is an example of a Schedule II controlled substance?

  • (A) Ketamine
  • (B) Morphine
  • (C) Diazepam
  • (D) Codeine with acetaminophen

View Answer
Answer: (B) Explanation: Morphine is a Schedule II controlled substance due to its accepted medical use and high potential for abuse.

3. Which schedule of controlled substances has a low to moderate potential for abuse, less than Schedule I and II?

  • (A) Schedule I
  • (B) Schedule II
  • (C) Schedule III
  • (D) Schedule IV

View Answer
Answer: (C) Explanation: Schedule III drugs have a low to moderate potential for abuse, such as anabolic steroids and codeine with acetaminophen.

4. Which of the following is a requirement for a controlled substance prescription?

  • (A) Prescriber’s full name and address
  • (B) Patient’s phone number
  • (C) Pharmacist’s DEA number
  • (D) Pharmacy’s address

View Answer
Answer: (A) Explanation: A controlled substance prescription must include the prescriber’s full name and address, among other details.

5. What must be written on a Schedule II prescription that is partially filled if the remaining quantity cannot be provided within 72 hours?

  • (A) Void
  • (B) Emergency
  • (C) Partial fill
  • (D) Refill

View Answer
Answer: (A) Explanation: If the remaining quantity of a Schedule II prescription cannot be provided within 72 hours, the prescription must be marked as void.

6. Which DEA form is used to report the loss or theft of controlled substances?

  • (A) DEA Form 41
  • (B) DEA Form 106
  • (C) DEA Form 222
  • (D) DEA Form 224

View Answer
Answer: (B) Explanation: DEA Form 106 is used to report the loss or theft of controlled substances.

7. Which schedule of controlled substances is generally used for antitussive, analgesic, and antidiarrheal purposes?

  • (A) Schedule II
  • (B) Schedule III
  • (C) Schedule IV
  • (D) Schedule V

View Answer
Answer: (D) Explanation: Schedule V drugs have little abuse potential and are generally used for antitussive, analgesic, and antidiarrheal purposes.

8. Which of the following is a Schedule IV controlled substance?

  • (A) Lorazepam
  • (B) Testosterone
  • (C) Amphetamine with dextroamphetamine
  • (D) Hydrocodone

View Answer
Answer: (A) Explanation: Lorazepam is a Schedule IV controlled substance with a low potential for abuse.

9. What is required for a prescriber to be able to prescribe controlled substances?

  • (A) State medical license
  • (B) DEA number
  • (C) National Provider Identifier (NPI)
  • (D) Pharmacy Technician Certification

View Answer
Answer: (B) Explanation: A prescriber must have a DEA number to prescribe controlled substances.

10. Which form is used to order Schedule I or II controlled substances?

  • (A) DEA Form 41
  • (B) DEA Form 106
  • (C) DEA Form 222
  • (D) DEA Form 224

View Answer
Answer: (C) Explanation: DEA Form 222 is used to order Schedule I or II controlled substances.

11. Which controlled substance schedule includes drugs like anabolic steroids and ketamine?

  • (A) Schedule I
  • (B) Schedule II
  • (C) Schedule III
  • (D) Schedule IV

View Answer
Answer: (C) Explanation: Anabolic steroids and ketamine are examples of Schedule III controlled substances.

12. How often must a pharmacy renew its DEA registration?

  • (A) Every year
  • (B) Every two years
  • (C) Every three years
  • (D) Every five years

View Answer
Answer: (C) Explanation: A pharmacy must renew its DEA registration every three years.

13. Which of the following is required to be on the label of a dispensed controlled substance?

  • (A) Patient’s birthdate
  • (B) “Caution: Federal law prohibits the transfer of this drug to any person other than the patient for whom it was prescribed.”
  • (C) Prescriber’s DEA number
  • (D) Pharmacy technician’s initials

View Answer
Answer: (B) Explanation: The label of a dispensed controlled substance must include the caution statement: “Caution: Federal law prohibits the transfer of this drug to any person other than the patient for whom it was prescribed.”

14. What is the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005 (CMEA) primarily concerned with?

  • (A) Limiting the sale of pseudoephedrine, phenylpropanolamine, and ephedrine-containing products
  • (B) Regulating the sale of opioid medications
  • (C) Controlling the distribution of anabolic steroids
  • (D) Monitoring the prescription of benzodiazepines

View Answer
Answer: (A) Explanation: The CMEA sets restrictions on the sale of pseudoephedrine, phenylpropanolamine, and ephedrine-containing products.

15. What is the primary purpose of Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies (REMS)?

  • (A) To promote the use of generic medications
  • (B) To ensure medications are stored properly
  • (C) To prevent, monitor, and manage the risks of certain medications
  • (D) To facilitate the transfer of prescriptions between pharmacies

View Answer
Answer: (C) Explanation: REMS are designed to prevent, monitor, and manage the risks of certain medications to ensure patient safety.

16. Which of the following drugs requires a REMS program due to its potential for causing severe neutropenia?

  • (A) Isotretinoin
  • (B) Thalidomide
  • (C) Clozapine
  • (D) Amiodarone

View Answer
Answer: (C) Explanation: Clozapine requires a REMS program due to its association with severe neutropenia.

17. Which DEA form is used for the destruction of outdated or damaged controlled substances?

  • (A) DEA Form 41
  • (B) DEA Form 106
  • (C) DEA Form 222
  • (D) DEA Form 224

View Answer
Answer: (A) Explanation: DEA Form 41 is used for the destruction of outdated or damaged controlled substances.

18. What is required for the transfer of a Schedule III, IV, or V prescription to another pharmacy?

  • (A) The original prescription must be mailed to the new pharmacy
  • (B) The original prescription must be voided
  • (C) A new prescription must be issued
  • (D) The patient must visit both pharmacies

View Answer
Answer: (B) Explanation: The original prescription must be marked as void, and the necessary transfer information must be recorded.

19. Which controlled substance schedule includes drugs with a low potential for abuse and dependence?

  • (A) Schedule I
  • (B) Schedule II
  • (C) Schedule III
  • (D) Schedule IV

View Answer
Answer: (D) Explanation: Schedule IV drugs have a low potential for abuse and dependence.

20. What must be done if a controlled substance prescription is issued in an emergency situation?

  • (A) The patient must sign a waiver
  • (B) The pharmacy must obtain a written prescription within seven days
  • (C) The prescriber must call the DEA
  • (D) The prescription must be labeled as “emergency”

View Answer
Answer: (B) Explanation: In an emergency situation, the pharmacy must obtain a written prescription from the prescriber within seven days.

21. How many times can a Schedule III, IV, or V prescription be transferred to another pharmacy?

  • (A) Once only
  • (B) Twice
  • (C) Three times
  • (D) Unlimited

View Answer
Answer: (A) Explanation: A Schedule III, IV, or V prescription may be transferred to another pharmacy once only, unless the pharmacies share an electronic database.

22. Which information is NOT required on a prescription for a controlled substance?

  • (A) Patient’s full name and address
  • (B) Prescriber’s DEA number
  • (C) Drug name and strength
  • (D) Patient’s insurance information

View Answer
Answer: (D) Explanation: Patient’s insurance information is not required on a prescription for a controlled substance.

23. What is the maximum amount of pseudoephedrine a customer can purchase in a day under the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act?

  • (A) 1.8 grams
  • (B) 2.4 grams
  • (C) 3.6 grams
  • (D) 4.5 grams

View Answer
Answer: (C) Explanation: Under the CMEA, the maximum amount of pseudoephedrine that can be purchased in a day is 3.6 grams.

24. Which controlled substance schedule includes drugs like pregabalin (Lyrica)?

  • (A) Schedule II
  • (B) Schedule III
  • (C) Schedule IV
  • (D) Schedule V

View Answer
Answer: (D) Explanation: Pregabalin (Lyrica) is an example of a Schedule V controlled substance.

25. How should Schedule II controlled substances be stored in a pharmacy?

  • (A) In a locked drawer
  • (B) On an open shelf
  • (C) Within a vault or safe
  • (D) In the refrigerator

View Answer
Answer: (C) Explanation: Schedule II controlled substances must be stored within a vault or safe in the pharmacy.

26. What information must be included when a Schedule II controlled substance is received by a pharmacy?

  • (A) Prescriber’s signature
  • (B) Patient’s full name
  • (C) Red C stamped on the invoice
  • (D) DEA Form 41

View Answer
Answer: (C) Explanation: When a Schedule II controlled substance is received, the invoice must be stamped with a red C.

27. Which of the following is a requirement for ordering Schedule III–V controlled substances?

  • (A) DEA Form 222
  • (B) DEA Form 106
  • (C) Standard ordering through the wholesaler or manufacturer
  • (D) DEA Form 224

View Answer
Answer: (C) Explanation: Schedule III–V controlled substances can be ordered through standard ordering through the wholesaler or manufacturer.

28. Which of the following drugs is classified as a Schedule IV controlled substance?

  • (A) Hydromorphone (Dilaudid)
  • (B) Zolpidem (Ambien)
  • (C) Codeine with acetaminophen (Tylenol 3)
  • (D) Oxycodone (Oxycontin)

View Answer
Answer: (B) Explanation: Zolpidem (Ambien) is classified as a Schedule IV controlled substance due to its low potential for abuse.

29. What is the purpose of a med guide in the context of REMS?

  • (A) To promote generic medication use
  • (B) To educate patients on how to avoid serious adverse effects
  • (C) To provide detailed information about the drug’s cost
  • (D) To ensure the drug is stored properly

View Answer
Answer: (B) Explanation: A med guide is provided to educate patients on how to avoid serious adverse effects associated with certain medications.

30. Which of the following statements is true regarding DEA numbers for prescribers?

  • (A) The first letter indicates the prescriber’s last name
  • (B) The second letter is the first letter of the prescriber’s first name
  • (C) The second letter is the first letter of the prescriber’s last name
  • (D) The first letter indicates the type of medication

View Answer
Answer: (C) Explanation: The second letter of a DEA number is the first letter of the prescriber’s last name.

See also:

Knowledge Domains and Areas

Free Practice test