Air Traffic Controller Knowledge Practice Test 2024: try our free Air Traffic Selection and Training Aptitude Test (AT-SAT) Knowledge review question answers. It will help your ATSA Test Prep better.
These questions are not on the AT-SAT test, but you should start acquiring this knowledge if you plan to pursue an ATC career. This knowledge comes from the study of the FAA’s Air Traffic Control Handbook, or “Order FAAH 7110.65,” and the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)’s sections on air traffic control and procedures.
Air Traffic Controller Knowledge Practice Test 2024
| Test | ATSA Practice Test 2024 |
| Exam Name | Air Traffic Selection and Training |
| Section | Knowledge |
| Question Types | Multiple-Choice |
| Test Type | Sample Practice Test |
| Total Items | 50 |
| Time Limit | N/A |
Q1. Course alignment accuracy of the VOR is plus/minus _____ degrees.
- A. 1
- B. 3
- C. 2
- D. 4
Q2. It is the responsibility of the ____________ to determine the final (within 2 miles of the airport) landing sequence between aircraft under its control.
- A. approach controller
- B. center controller
- C. flight service station
- D. control tower
Q3. When the wind is less than 5 knots, which of the following runways should be used?
- A. Pilot’s choice
- B. Any runway
- C. Controller’s choice
- D. Calm wind
Q4. The _____ controller manages aircraft operations on the airport movement area except the active runway(s).
- A. ground
- B. local
- C. radar
- D. non-radar
Q5. Airport Traffic Control Towers (ATCT) provide for both preventive and positive control of VFR and IFR aircraft around airports where they are located.
- A. True
- B. False
Q6. What is the minimum vertical separation (in feet) required between IFR aircraft below FL 290?
- A. 1,000
- B. 2,000
- C. 3,000
- D. 4,000
Q7. A controller provides ________ separation until some other type of separation can be established for IFR aircraft on the same route in the same direction.
- A. visual
- B. lateral
- C. vertical
- D. longitudinal
Q8. In radio communications, the phrase “have numbers” is not the same as the pilot having the information contained in the current ATIS broadcast.
- A. True
- B. False
Q9. Glidepath information for the ILS is useable when flying
- A. outbound-back course.
- B. inbound-front course.
- C. inbound-back course.
- D. outbound-front course.
Q10. In handling a normal IFR aircraft on a flight from Chicago to Las Vegas, the facilities involved could include _________.
- A. center
- B. tower
- C. approach control
- D. all of the above
Q11. Letters of Agreement (LOA) are used between centers and towers to ensure correct procedures or delegate airspace control.
- A. True
- B. False
Q12. What is the first duty priority of controllers?
- A. providing advisories within 10 miles of the airport
- B. issuing weather advisories
- C. vectoring aircraft to the airport
- D. none of the above are correct
Q13. Tower Local Control provides both positive and preventive control instructions.
- A. True
- B. False
Q14. Spaces 10-18 on the approach/departure control flight progress strip are used for
- A. altitude data.
- B. route information.
- C. facility specific data.
- D. aircraft identification data.
Q15. A degree divergence chart is primarily used to apply ___________ non-radar separation.
- A. vertical
- B. lateral
- C. longitudinal
- D. visual
Q16. Which aircraft equipment suffix (transponder) indicates the aircraft is equipped with DME and altitude data capabilities displayed on ATC radar scopes?
- A. X
- B. C
- C. A
- D. T
Q17. Flight progress strips are pieces of paper used to record aircraft movement.
- A. True
- B. False
Q18. Corrections for altitude data on a flight progress strip are made by using a single line to delete the wrong information.
- A. True
- B. False
Q19. _____ is usually the lowest altitude that can be assigned by ATC on a Victor airway.
- A. MXA
- B. MSA
- C. MVA
- D. MEA
Q20. The transfer of _________ point is ___________.
- A. communications; after the aircraft crosses the receiving controller’s airspace.
- B. control; after the aircraft crosses the receiving controller’s airspace.
- C. communications; before the aircraft crosses the receiving controller’s airspace.
- D. control; before the aircraft crosses the receiving controller’s airspace.
Q21. When using vertical separation, the lead aircraft must always be same speed or faster.
- A. True
- B. False
Q22. When using lateral separation, the lead aircraft must always be same speed or faster.
- A. True
- B. False
Q23. When using longitudinal separation, the lead aircraft must always be same speed or faster.
- A. True
- B. False
Q24. Holding pattern airspace to be protected is a form of lateral separation.
- A. True
- B. False
Q25. Radar separation is ___ miles when both aircraft are less than 40 miles from the antenna.
- A. 3
- B. 5
- C. 10
- D. none of the above
Q26. Two or more aircraft estimated to occupy the same airspace in less than ten minutes are considered to be
- A. separated.
- B. in conflict.
- C. separated if they are talking to different ATC facilities.
- D. no problem, if one of the aircraft are in the clouds (the no-see’em factor).
Q27. Two of more air traffic control facilities can control an aircraft at the same time.
- A. True
- B. False
Q28. ________ are used between two facilities (external coordination) and _________ are used for facilities (external coordination).
- A. Letters of Agreement; Ops letters
- B. Ops letters; Letters of Agreement
- C. AIM; Ops letters
- D. Letters of Agreement; 7110.65
Q29. When using __________ separation minima the transfer of communication shall be made ____ minutes before the aircraft is estimated to reach the boundary unless otherwise agreed
to by the control and/or communication facilities concerned.
- A. nonradar; 3
- B. nonradar; 5
- C. radar; 3
- D. radar; 5
Q30. Air traffic control is defined as the orderly, safe and careful flow of airplanes through designated airspace.
- A. True
- B. False
Q31. Letters of Agreement (LOA) are used between centers and pilots to ensure correct phraseology.
- A. True
- B. False
Q32. The transfer of control point is ___________ the aircraft crosses the receiving controller’s airspace.
- A. any time after
- B. five minutes after
- C. five minutes before
- D. when
Q33. ATC is described as being “situational” with weather conditions being the primary factor in delays.
- A. True
- B. False
Q34. A Certified Professional Controller (CPC) has all the appropriate ratings for his or her area of assignment.
- A. True
- B. False
Q35. The first three items in an ATC departure clearance are aircraft identification,
- A. clearance limit, and route of flight.
- B. clearance limit, and altitude.
- C. altitude, and route of flight.
- D. clearance limit, and holding instructions.
Q36. The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall comply with all provisions of an ATC clearance unless an amended clearance has been obtained or
- A. conducting formation flight operations.
- B. participating in a speed run.
- C. operating aircraft in IFR conditions.
- D. in an emergency situation.
Q37. The purpose of an ATC clearance is to
- A. relieve controller stress.
- B. provide classified instructions to pilots.
- C. prevent collision between known aircraft.
- D. provide for emergency situations.
Q38. VFR aircraft operating in uncontrolled airspace
- A. should set their transponder to 1200.
- B. must always use air traffic control services.
- C. can contact ATC by radio.
- D. are prohibited from contacting ATC.
- E. A and C are correct.
Q39. Flight progress strips are unofficial government documents used to record aircraft movements.
- A. True
- B. False
Q40. Which is NOT a part of the clearance items spoken by a controller?
- A. aircraft ID
- B. departure speed
- C. clearance limit
- D. route of flight
Q41. ATIS is the continuous broadcast of recorded
- A. information alerting pilots of radar-identified aircraft when their aircraft is in dangerous proximity to terrain or an obstruction.
- B. nonessential information to reduce radio congestion.
- C. non-control information in selected high activity terminal areas.
- D. sky conditions report limited to ceilings below 1,000 feet and visibility less than 3 miles.
Q42. A conflict is defined as two or more aircraft
- A. (IFR) estimating the same fix at the same altitude within 10 minutes of each other.
- B. (IFR) holding at the same fix at the same altitude at the same time.
- C. IFR and VFR departures within one minute of each other.
- D. all of the above are correct.
- E. A and B are correct.
Q43. A departure leaves the airport climbing through an arrival, which is over a point 45 miles northwest; both are converging toward the same VORTAC (ETA within 10 minutes).
- A. Separation is required as the protected airspace for each does NOT overlap.
- B. The controller must provide some type of separation.
- C. The transferring controller must make sure there are at least 1,000 feet between the two aircraft.
- D. No separation is required as there is no conflict.
Q44. Two aircraft are arriving at the same airport and one is estimating to be over IAF for the ILS twenty (20) minutes before the second aircraft.
- A. Separation is required as the protected airspace for each does NOT overlap.
- B. The controller must provide some type of separation.
- C. The transferring controller must make sure there are at least 1,000 feet between the two aircraft.
- D. No separation is required as there is no conflict.
Q45. An aircraft, arriving at the airport, has reported leaving 8,000 for 4,000 and another aircraft is overflying the airport VORTAC at 6,000 (both estimating a common fix at 9 minutes
apart).
- A. Separation is required as the protected airspace for each does NOT overlap.
- B. The controller must provide some type of separation.
- C. The transferring controller must make sure there are at least 1,000 feet between the two aircraft.
- D. No separation is required as there is no conflict.
Q46. Two aircraft are in the approach controller’s airspace and are arriving at the same airport, assigned to hold over the IAF fix for the ILS at least 1,000 feet apart.
- A. Separation is required as the protected airspace for each does NOT overlap.
- B. The controller must provide some type of separation.
- C. The transferring controller must make sure there are at least 1,000 feet between the two aircraft.
- D. No separation is required as there is no conflict.
Q47. Two aircraft are requesting to depart the same airport at the same time and are assigned courses which will take one northeast and the other to the west (courses diverge by 135
degrees).
- A. Separation is required as the protected airspace for each does NOT overlap.
- B. The controller must provide some type of separation.
- C. The transferring controller must make sure there are at least 1,000 feet between the two aircraft.
- D. No separation is required as there is no conflict.
Q48. VORs are identified by _____ letters in Morse Code.
- A. 1
- B. 2
- C. 3
- D. 4
Q49. The navigational aid designed specifically for military needs is
- A. VORTAC.
- B. VOT.
- C. TACAN.
- D. VOR.
Q50. What is the correct phraseology for issuing the runway?
- A. Runway Thirty
- B. Runway One Zero
- C. Nine is the Runway
- D. Runway Forty
See also:
- ATSA Practice Test 2024 Study Guide Air Traffic Controller Exam
- ATSA Angles Practice Test
- ATSA Applied Math Practice Test
- ATSA Dial Reading Practice Test
- Air Traffic Controller Knowledge Practice Test