AP Human Geography Questions and Answers: Give yourself exactly 60 minutes to complete the 75 multiple-choice questions of Section I and 75 minutes to write the three free-response essays of Section II.
Set a timer so that the timing is exact and you don’t have to keep looking at a clock. Try to re-create the conditions of the actual exam as much as possible. Set aside a block of time when you won’t be interrupted. Also, choose a quiet place such as a library where you won’t be distracted or interrupted if possible.
AP Human Geography Questions and Answers
|Test Name||APHG Practice Test 2023|
|Questions Type||multiple-choice questions (MCQs)|
|Time Limit||35 minutes|
|Negative marking||No penalize|
Q1. Advertising, legal services, and retailing are examples of
- (A) primary economic activities.
- (B) secondary economic activities.
- (C) tertiary economic activities.
- (D) quaternary economic activities.
- (E) quinary economic activities.
Q2. The Industrial Revolution first diffused from Great Britain to
- (A) Germany.
- (B) Russia.
- (C) Italy.
- (D) British colonies in North America.
- (E) France.
Q3. Which one of the following statements does NOT correctly describe commodity chains?
- (A) They usually begin in periphery countries.
- (B) They reap the highest profits for core countries.
- (C) They involve several locations around the world.
- (D) They are located near cheap sources of labor.
- (E) They are centered around periphery markets for finished goods.
Q4. Which theory below explains why two competing pizza parlors both position themselves in the middle of their customer base?
- (A) Dependency theory
- (B) The stages of economic development theory
- (C) World-systems theory
- (D) Locational interdependence theory
- (E) The domino theory
Q5. All of the following factors are important in locating an industrial activity EXCEPT
- (A) the cost of labor.
- (B) the cost of land.
- (C) the market demand for the good.
- (D) government policies.
- (E) climate.
Q6. Chinatown is an example of a
- (A) functional region.
- (B) nodal region.
- (C) perceptual region.
- (D) formal region.
- (E) uniform region.
Q7. The map created by Lewis and Clark could be called a
- (A) thematic map.
- (B) choropleth map.
- (C) graduated circle map.
- (D) general purpose map.
- (E) topographic map.
Q8. If you wanted to see the location of the city building in Seattle, Washington, you would need a
- (A) large-scale map.
- (B) small-scale map.
- (C) topographic map.
- (D) graduated circle map.
- (E) choropleth map.
Q9. Human geography is the study of
- (A) the physical processes of the Earth.
- (B) who lives where, how they live, and why they live there.
- (C) the psychology of the human race using maps.
- (D) the culture of the human race minus environmental influences.
- (E) how humans evolved through time.
Q10. The Christian religion in South America first spread by
- (A) stimulus diffusion.
- (B) relocation diffusion.
- (C) contagious diffusion.
- (D) hierarchical diffusion.
- (E) force.
Q11. The three largest population clusters in the world are in
- (A) East Asia, South Asia, Southeast Asia.
- (B) East Asia, South Asia, South America.
- (C) Africa, South Asia, East Asia.
- (D) Australia, South Asia, East Asia.
- (E) Australia, East Asia, Europe.
Q12. In what stage of the demographic transition model are most LDCs?
- (A) First
- (B) Second
- (C) Third
- (D) Fourth
- (E) Fifth
Q13. Which one of the following demographic statistics best measures the level of reproduction occurring in a population?
- (A) Composite birth statistics
- (B) Natal rate
- (C) CDR
- (D) CBR
- (E) TFR
Q14. Which one of the following statements is a law of migration according to E. G. Ravenstein?
- (A) Most migration is urban to rural.
- (B) Most migrants move a great distance.
- (C) Every migration flow creates a return or counter migration.
- (D) Most migrants consist of families.
- (E) Most international migrants are senior citizens.
Q15. Which one of the following statements is most characteristic of a refugee?
- (A) They usually move with official documentation.
- (B) Their first steps are often made on foot, by boat, wagon, or bicycle.
- (C) They take all of their physical possessions with them.
- (D) Their chief motivation is to get new jobs.
- (E) They move at a leisurely pace.
Q16. The process by which the English language diffused throughout India under British colonial rule was
- (A) assimilation.
- (B) hierarchical diffusion.
- (C) expansion diffusion.
- (D) contagious diffusion.
- (E) stimulus diffusion.
Q17. When an ethnic group completely blends with the larger society, it is called
- (A) assimilation.
- (B) expansion diffusion.
- (C) hierarchical diffusion.
- (D) contagious diffusion.
- (E) acculturation.
Q18. Which one of the following is the best example of a cultural landscape of pop culture?
- (A) Central business district (CBD)
- (B) Commercial strip
- (C) Shopping mall
- (D) Hotel and convention complex
- (E) Bed-and-breakfast
Q19. The standardization of location that erases cultural variety can result in
- (A) place image.
- (B) popular culture.
- (C) folk culture.
- (D) placelessness.
- (E) a sense of place.
Q20. Which of the following world religions is one that proselytizes, or actively seeks converts?
- (A) Judaism
- (B) Hinduism
- (C) Animism
- (D) Shamanism
- (E) Buddhism
Q21. Which one of the following is the best example of a nation-state?
- (A) Germany
- (B) Italy
- (C) Vietnam
- (D) Japan
- (E) England
Q22. A part of a country that is separated from the main country by the territory of another country is
- (A) an island.
- (B) ghetto.
- (C) an enclave.
- (D) a peninsula.
- (E) a colony.
Q23. The celebration of a national holiday is an example of
- (A) centrifugal force.
- (B) centripetal force.
- (C) terrorism.
- (D) insurgency.
- (E) revolution.
Q24. Mackinder’s heartland-rimland theory predicted
- (A) the Muslim takeover of the world.
- (B) the rise of British colonialism.
- (C) that the Japanese would conquer the Pacific Rim.
- (D) that a nation from Eurasia would conquer the world.
- (E) the rise of nationalism in Europe.
Q25. What would probably be the easiest shape of a state for national defense?
- (A) Compact
- (B) Elongated
- (C) Prorupt
- (D) Fragmented
- (E) Perforated
Q26. The practice of shifting cultivation is
- (A) slash and burn agriculture.
- (B) agribusiness.
- (C) found primarily in the tundra regions.
- (D) commercial agriculture.
- (E) pastoralism.
Q27. The Green Revolution introduced the use of
- (A) maize.
- (B) chemical fertilizers.
- (C) mechanization.
- (D) slash-and-burn agriculture.
- (E) organic farming methods.
Q28. Which one of the following statements does NOT correctly describe plantations?
- (A) They are usually found in tropical regions.
- (B) They often employ alien laborers.
- (C) They usually specialize in producing one crop.
- (D) The soil type is the main element determining what a plantation produces.
- (E) They satisfy a demand in temperate regions for tropical crops like sugar, bananas, or coffee.
Q29. All of the following factors are serious negative consequences of the Green Revolution EXCEPT
- (A) excessive salinity of soils.
- (B) serious groundwater depletion.
- (C) increased crop production.
- (D) loss of traditional agricultural practices.
- (E) loss of traditional crop varieties (land races).
Q30. The goal of commercial agriculture is
- (A) minimal food security.
- (B) genetic diversity of seeds.
- (C) establishment of seed banks throughout the world.
- (D) profit maximization.
- (E) sustainable farming practices.
Q31. An edge city could have any of the following attributes EXCEPT
- (A) more jobs than bedrooms.
- (B) being commonly perceived as a single place.
- (C) 500,000 square feet of retail area.
- (D) 500,000 square feet of office area.
- (E) being urban for 30 years or more.
Q32. A crucial part of Christaller’s central place theory is the fact that goods and services vary in range and
- (A) access.
- (B) quantity.
- (C) spatial distribution.
- (D) threshold.
- (E) quality.
Q33. If you commuted to work by automobile every day in the city, in which zone of Burgess’s concentric zone model would you be most likely to live?
- (A) 1
- (B) 2
- (C) 3
- (D) 4
- (E) 5
Q34. The movement of middle-class residents into rundown urban center city neighborhoods is called
- (A) urban renewal.
- (B) urban sprawl.
- (C) urban revitalization.
- (D) gentrification.
- (E) multiplier effect.
Q35. Which one of the following characteristics does NOT apply to cities of the developing world?
- (A) Rapid population growth
- (B) An inability to provide basic services for population
- (C) A colonial heritage
- (D) A small informal economic sector
- (E) A land-use pattern strongly influenced by function of the city