AP Human Geography Questions and Answers

AP Human Geography Questions and Answers: Give yourself exactly 60 minutes to complete the 75 multiple-choice questions of Section I and 75 minutes to write the three free-response essays of Section II.

Set a timer so that the timing is exact and you don’t have to keep looking at a clock. Try to re-create the conditions of the actual exam as much as possible. Set aside a block of time when you won’t be interrupted. Also, choose a quiet place such as a library where you won’t be distracted or interrupted if possible.

AP Human Geography Questions and Answers

Test Name APHG Practice Test 2024
Section One
Questions Type multiple-choice questions (MCQs)
Total MCQ n/a
Time Limit 35 minutes
Negative marking No penalize
Score Instant

Q1. Advertising, legal services, and retailing are examples of

  • (A) primary economic activities.
  • (B) secondary economic activities.
  • (C) tertiary economic activities.
  • (D) quaternary economic activities.
  • (E) quinary economic activities.
View Correct Answer
Answer Key: C 

Q2. The Industrial Revolution first diffused from Great Britain to

  • (A) Germany.
  • (B) Russia.
  • (C) Italy.
  • (D) British colonies in North America.
  • (E) France.
View Correct Answer
Answer Key: D 

Q3. Which one of the following statements does NOT correctly describe commodity chains?

  • (A) They usually begin in periphery countries.
  • (B) They reap the highest profits for core countries.
  • (C) They involve several locations around the world.
  • (D) They are located near cheap sources of labor.
  • (E) They are centered around periphery markets for finished goods.
View Correct Answer
Answer Key: E 

Q4. Which theory below explains why two competing pizza parlors both position themselves in the middle of their customer base?

  • (A) Dependency theory
  • (B) The stages of economic development theory
  • (C) World-systems theory
  • (D) Locational interdependence theory
  • (E) The domino theory
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Answer Key: D 

Q5. All of the following factors are important in locating an industrial activity EXCEPT

  • (A) the cost of labor.
  • (B) the cost of land.
  • (C) the market demand for the good.
  • (D) government policies.
  • (E) climate.
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Answer Key: E 

Q6. Chinatown is an example of a

  • (A) functional region.
  • (B) nodal region.
  • (C) perceptual region.
  • (D) formal region.
  • (E) uniform region.
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Answer Key: C 

Q7. The map created by Lewis and Clark could be called a

  • (A) thematic map.
  • (B) choropleth map.
  • (C) graduated circle map.
  • (D) general purpose map.
  • (E) topographic map.
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Answer Key: D 

Q8. If you wanted to see the location of the city building in Seattle, Washington, you would need a

  • (A) large-scale map.
  • (B) small-scale map.
  • (C) topographic map.
  • (D) graduated circle map.
  • (E) choropleth map.
View Correct Answer
Answer Key: A 

Q9. Human geography is the study of

  • (A) the physical processes of the Earth.
  • (B) who lives where, how they live, and why they live there.
  • (C) the psychology of the human race using maps.
  • (D) the culture of the human race minus environmental influences.
  • (E) how humans evolved through time.
View Correct Answer
Answer Key: B 

Q10. The Christian religion in South America first spread by

  • (A) stimulus diffusion.
  • (B) relocation diffusion.
  • (C) contagious diffusion.
  • (D) hierarchical diffusion.
  • (E) force.
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Answer Key: B 

Q11. The three largest population clusters in the world are in

  • (A) East Asia, South Asia, Southeast Asia.
  • (B) East Asia, South Asia, South America.
  • (C) Africa, South Asia, East Asia.
  • (D) Australia, South Asia, East Asia.
  • (E) Australia, East Asia, Europe.
View Correct Answer
Answer Key: A 

Q12. In what stage of the demographic transition model are most LDCs?

  • (A) First
  • (B) Second
  • (C) Third
  • (D) Fourth
  • (E) Fifth
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Answer Key: B 

Q13. Which one of the following demographic statistics best measures the level of reproduction occurring in a population?

  • (A) Composite birth statistics
  • (B) Natal rate
  • (C) CDR
  • (D) CBR
  • (E) TFR
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Answer Key: E 

Q14. Which one of the following statements is a law of migration according to E. G. Ravenstein?

  • (A) Most migration is urban to rural.
  • (B) Most migrants move a great distance.
  • (C) Every migration flow creates a return or counter migration.
  • (D) Most migrants consist of families.
  • (E) Most international migrants are senior citizens.
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Answer Key: C 

Q15. Which one of the following statements is most characteristic of a refugee?

  • (A) They usually move with official documentation.
  • (B) Their first steps are often made on foot, by boat, wagon, or bicycle.
  • (C) They take all of their physical possessions with them.
  • (D) Their chief motivation is to get new jobs.
  • (E) They move at a leisurely pace.
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Answer Key: B 

Q16. The process by which the English language diffused throughout India under British colonial rule was

  • (A) assimilation.
  • (B) hierarchical diffusion.
  • (C) expansion diffusion.
  • (D) contagious diffusion.
  • (E) stimulus diffusion.
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Answer Key: B 

Q17. When an ethnic group completely blends with the larger society, it is called

  • (A) assimilation.
  • (B) expansion diffusion.
  • (C) hierarchical diffusion.
  • (D) contagious diffusion.
  • (E) acculturation.
View Correct Answer
Answer Key: A 

Q18. Which one of the following is the best example of a cultural landscape of pop culture?

  • (A) Central business district (CBD)
  • (B) Commercial strip
  • (C) Shopping mall
  • (D) Hotel and convention complex
  • (E) Bed-and-breakfast
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Answer Key: C 

Q19. The standardization of location that erases cultural variety can result in

  • (A) place image.
  • (B) popular culture.
  • (C) folk culture.
  • (D) placelessness.
  • (E) a sense of place.
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Answer Key: D 

Q20. Which of the following world religions is one that proselytizes, or actively seeks converts?

  • (A) Judaism
  • (B) Hinduism
  • (C) Animism
  • (D) Shamanism
  • (E) Buddhism
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Answer Key: E 

Q21. Which one of the following is the best example of a nation-state?

  • (A) Germany
  • (B) Italy
  • (C) Vietnam
  • (D) Japan
  • (E) England
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Answer Key: D 

Q22. A part of a country that is separated from the main country by the territory of another country is

  • (A) an island.
  • (B) ghetto.
  • (C) an enclave.
  • (D) a peninsula.
  • (E) a colony.
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Answer Key: C 

Q23. The celebration of a national holiday is an example of

  • (A) centrifugal force.
  • (B) centripetal force.
  • (C) terrorism.
  • (D) insurgency.
  • (E) revolution.
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Answer Key: B 

Q24. Mackinder’s heartland-rimland theory predicted

  • (A) the Muslim takeover of the world.
  • (B) the rise of British colonialism.
  • (C) that the Japanese would conquer the Pacific Rim.
  • (D) that a nation from Eurasia would conquer the world.
  • (E) the rise of nationalism in Europe.
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Answer Key: D 

Q25. What would probably be the easiest shape of a state for national defense?

  • (A) Compact
  • (B) Elongated
  • (C) Prorupt
  • (D) Fragmented
  • (E) Perforated
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Answer Key: A 

Q26. The practice of shifting cultivation is

  • (A) slash and burn agriculture.
  • (B) agribusiness.
  • (C) found primarily in the tundra regions.
  • (D) commercial agriculture.
  • (E) pastoralism.
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Answer Key: A 

Q27. The Green Revolution introduced the use of

  • (A) maize.
  • (B) chemical fertilizers.
  • (C) mechanization.
  • (D) slash-and-burn agriculture.
  • (E) organic farming methods.
View Correct Answer
Answer Key: B 

Q28. Which one of the following statements does NOT correctly describe plantations?

  • (A) They are usually found in tropical regions.
  • (B) They often employ alien laborers.
  • (C) They usually specialize in producing one crop.
  • (D) The soil type is the main element determining what a plantation produces.
  • (E) They satisfy a demand in temperate regions for tropical crops like sugar, bananas, or coffee.
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Answer Key: D 

Q29. All of the following factors are serious negative consequences of the Green Revolution EXCEPT

  • (A) excessive salinity of soils.
  • (B) serious groundwater depletion.
  • (C) increased crop production.
  • (D) loss of traditional agricultural practices.
  • (E) loss of traditional crop varieties (land races).
View Correct Answer
Answer Key: C 

Q30. The goal of commercial agriculture is

  • (A) minimal food security.
  • (B) genetic diversity of seeds.
  • (C) establishment of seed banks throughout the world.
  • (D) profit maximization.
  • (E) sustainable farming practices.
View Correct Answer
Answer Key: D 

Q31. An edge city could have any of the following attributes EXCEPT

  • (A) more jobs than bedrooms.
  • (B) being commonly perceived as a single place.
  • (C) 500,000 square feet of retail area.
  • (D) 500,000 square feet of office area.
  • (E) being urban for 30 years or more.
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Answer Key: E 

Q32. A crucial part of Christaller’s central place theory is the fact that goods and services vary in range and

  • (A) access.
  • (B) quantity.
  • (C) spatial distribution.
  • (D) threshold.
  • (E) quality.
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Answer Key: D 

Q33. If you commuted to work by automobile every day in the city, in which zone of Burgess’s concentric zone model would you be most likely to live?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
  • (E) 5
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Answer Key: E

Q34. The movement of middle-class residents into rundown urban center city neighborhoods is called

  • (A) urban renewal.
  • (B) urban sprawl.
  • (C) urban revitalization.
  • (D) gentrification.
  • (E) multiplier effect.
View Correct Answer
Answer Key: D 

Q35. Which one of the following characteristics does NOT apply to cities of the developing world?

  • (A) Rapid population growth
  • (B) An inability to provide basic services for population
  • (C) A colonial heritage
  • (D) A small informal economic sector
  • (E) A land-use pattern strongly influenced by function of the city
View Correct Answer
Answer Key: D