Q1. The basic unit of life is
- A. the cell.
- B. DNA.
- C. the carbon molecule.
- D. oxygen.
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Answer: A
Although DNA, carbon, and oxygen are important to life, the basic unit of life is the cell. Choice A is the correct answer.
Q2. When a plant undergoes photosynthesis, one of the by-products is
- A. carbon dioxide.
- B. light.
- C. ozone.
- D. oxygen.
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Answer: D
During the process of photosynthesis, a plant uses carbon dioxide and water. Glucose (a sugar) and oxygen are created through the interaction of chlorophyll and light. Carbon dioxide (choice A) is not a by-product of photosynthesis, but rather the raw material used by the plant, and light (choice B) initiates the process of photosynthesis as it interacts with chlorophyll. Ozone is found high in the atmosphere and is not created by plants. Choice D, oxygen, is the correct answer.
Q3. Why is the nucleus so important to a living cell?
- A. It controls the production and elimination of cell waste.
- B. It controls most of the activities of the cell.
- C. It controls photosynthesis.
- D. It uses oxygen to make carbon dioxide.
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Answer: B
The nucleus is important because it controls most of the cell’s activities. Choice B is the correct answer
Q4. Which of the following do not have organelles?
- A. Muscle cells
- B. Protozoa
- C. Nerve cells
- D. Bacteria
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Answer: D
Muscle cells (choice A) and nerve cells (choice C) all have organelles. Protozoa (choice B), one-celled organisms, also have organelles. Bacteria (choice D) do not. Choice D is the correct answer.
Q5. Which of the following is not an example of a fruit?
- A. Raspberries
- B. Sunflower seeds
- C. Corn
- D. Potato
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Answer: D
A fruit is a ripened ovary or group of ovaries containing seeds. When the ovary is fertilized, the seeds develop and the ovary enlarges, forming the fruit. Examples of fruits are peanuts, sunflower seeds, barley, walnuts, tomatoes, grapes, oranges, apples, raspberries, cucumbers, squash, corn, eggplant, and strawberries. A potato does not contain or form seeds, so choice D is the correct answer.
Q6. Which of the following terms can be used to describe a bird?
- A. Invertebrate, omnivore
- B. Vertebrate, warm-blooded
- C. Endoskeleton, cold-blooded
- D. Crustacean, endoskeleton
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Answer: B
Birds are vertebrates that are warm-blooded. Choice B is the correct answer.
Q7. Why are decomposers important to an ecosystem?
- A. They make nutrients available for plants to use.
- B. They create soil for farming.
- C. They stabilize the soil.
- D. They enhance the habitat with specialized particles important to life.
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Answer: A
Decomposers break down tissue and release nutrients and carbon dioxide into the ecosystem. Choice A is the correct answer.
Q8. Which of the following is the part of the skeletal system that protects the spinal cord?
- A. Marrow
- B. Cartilage
- C. Ligaments
- D. Vertebrae
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Answer: D
Marrow (choice A) is the soft tissue within the bone and does not protect the spinal cord. Cartilage (choice B) is a smooth, slippery covering on the ends of bones that acts as a shock absorber. Its purpose is not to protect the spinal cord. Ligaments (choice C) are one of how bones are joined and move together. They do not protect the spinal cord. The vertebrae found in your back do indeed protect the spinal cord. Choice D is the correct answer.
Q9. A bruise on your skin is the result of which of the following?
- A. Excess strain on the muscle
- B. Broken capillaries
- C. Overactive sweat glands
- D. Swelling
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Answer: B
A bruise on your skin may cause some swelling (choice D), but the bruise is unrelated to your sweat glands (choice C). Excess strain on
your muscles (choice A) may cause some discomfort, but that is not likely to break your capillaries. Bruising is caused by some traumatic
event that breaks the capillaries. Choice B is the correct answer.
Q10. The function that moves food from one part of the digestive system to another is called
- A. respiration.
- B. digestion.
- C. mechanical decomposition.
- D. peristalsis.
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Answer: D
Peristalsis is the muscular contraction of the digestive system that moves food from one part of the system to the next. For example, peristalsis is responsible for moving food from the stomach to the large intestine.
Q11. Which of the following words are all associated with the nervous system?
- A. Nephrons, urethra, bladder
- B. Antigens, T cells, cilia
- C. Hypothalamus, pons, cortex
- D. Lymph nodes, spleen, tonsils
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Answer: C
The hypothalamus, pons, and cortex (choice C) are all parts of the brain and, thus, of the nervous system. Nephrons, urethra, and bladder (choice A) are part of the excretory system. Antigens, T cells, and cilia (choice B) are all part of the immune system. Lymph nodes, spleen, and tonsils (choice D) are part of the lymphatic system. Choice C is the correct answer.
Q12. Which of the following is the name for the space between two nerve cells where an electric charge transmits information?
- A. Nerve cell gap
- B. Synapse
- C. Axon
- D. Dendrite
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Answer: B
Dendrites (choice D) and axons (choice C) are parts of the nerve cell. The nerve cell gap (choice A) is not the correct answer because it is unrelated to the nervous system. A synapse is the space between two nerve cells where an electric charge transmits information. Choice B is the correct answer.
Q13. Which of the following states is likely to have the greatest biodiversity?
- A. North Dakota
- B. Illinois
- C. Nebraska
- D. Florida
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Answer: D
Biodiversity tends to increase with warmer climates. Florida is the warmest state of those listed, so choice D is the correct answer
Q14. Which of the following best represents what happens to ultraviolet radiation from the sun when it reaches Earth’s atmosphere?
- A. It changes into chlorofluorocarbons.
- B. Some of it is absorbed by the ozone layer.
- C. All of it reaches the Earth’s surface.
- D. It is deflected back into space.
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Answer: B
Ultraviolet light is absorbed, at least in part, by the ozone layer in the atmosphere. Some of it passes through to Earth’s surface. With the thinning of the ozone layer due to the introduction of chlorofluorocarbons into the atmosphere, more ultraviolet light is reaching Earth’s surface, possibly damaging effects on humans. Choice B is the correct answer.
Q15. Which of the following properties of a sound wave affects how loud or soft the sound is?
- A. Crest
- B. Trough
- C. Frequency
- D. Amplitude
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Answer: D
The amplitude of a sound wave is responsible for the loudness of the sound. Choice D is the correct answer.
Q16. The major force causing sea-floor spreading, continental drift, and the collision of continental plates is
- A. subduction of Earth’s core.
- B. creation of oceanic ridges.
- C. compression of continents.
- D. convection currents in the mantle.
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Answer: D
All the alternatives have something to do with sea-floor spreading, but only one is the cause. Subduction (choice A) is a downward force or movement resulting from sea-floor spreading, not the cause. The same can be said for creating the ridges (choice B) and for compressing continents (choice C). They are both results, not causes. All these features are produced by the convection currents in the mantle, which cause the uprising and subduction of the crust. Choice D is the correct answer.
Q17. When two tectonic plates converge and one rises above the other, which of the following are likely to form?
- A. Volcanoes
- B. Hot spots
- C. Tsunamis
- D. Rifts
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Answer: A
A rift (choice D) is a valley in the ocean floor formed by separating tectonic plates. A tsunami (choice C) is a wall of water that can overwhelm a shoreline. It is created when an earthquake creates an ocean wave. Hot spots (choice B) are undersea fissures spouting magma from the sea floor. The Hawaiian Islands have been and continue to be created from hot spots. When two tectonic plates converge and one rises above the other, it is common to find areas that experience earthquakes and volcanic activity. Choice A, volcanoes, is the correct answer.
Q18. Breaking waves or breakers that occur near the shoreline are caused by which of the following conditions?
- A. Earthquakes that occur far out in the ocean
- B. Friction between the wave trough and the ocean bottom
- C. The expansion of the wavelength of the wave
- D. Increasing tidal forces
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Answer: B
When a wave is created in the ocean by persistent surface winds, the wave moves in the direction of the winds. When that wave approaches land, it moves through shallow water and the trough (bottom) of the wave starts to scrape the ocean bottom. The scraping causes friction, which makes the wave’s trough move more slowly than the crest (top). Eventually, the crest just topples over, creating a breaker. Choice B is the correct answer.
Q19. How long does it take for Earth to make one revolution around the sun?
- A. 1 year
- B. 1 month
- C. 1 week
- D. 1 day
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Answer: A
The definition of a year is the time it takes for Earth to make one revolution around the sun. Choice A, 1 year, is the correct answer.
Q20. An eclipse of the sun occurs under which of the following conditions?
- A. Earth is between the sun and the moon.
- B. Earth is rotating faster than the moon.
- C. Earth, the sun, and the moon are perpendicular.
- D. The moon is between the sun and Earth.
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Answer: D
A solar eclipse is created when the moon blocks the light from the sun from reaching Earth by casting a shadow on Earth’s surface. The shadow covers only a very small area, so a total solar eclipse is visible only on a limited part of Earth’s surface at any time. The shadow has two parts, a darker part called the umbra, where a total eclipse occurs, and a lighter part called the penumbra, where a partial eclipse can be seen. For a solar eclipse, the moon must be between the sun and Earth. Choice D is the correct answer.
Q21. Earth’s greenhouse effect is caused by which of the following conditions?
- A. Changing rainfall patterns from global warming
- B. Heat from the sun that is trapped by atmospheric gases
- C. The increase in the thickness of the ozone layer
- D. The number of plants in tropical rainforests trapping CO2
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Answer: B
When solar radiation reaches Earth’s atmosphere, the radiation is either reflected, absorbed by Earth’s atmosphere, or trapped by Earth’s atmosphere. When it is trapped by the atmosphere, it causes the atmosphere and Earth’s surface to heat up. Choice B is the correct answer.
Q22. Which of the following can hold the most moisture?
- A. Cold air
- B. Moving air
- C. Stable air
- D. Warm air
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Answer: D
Warm air can hold more moisture than cold air. Air masses formed over tropical oceans can hold significant amounts of moisture, while air masses formed over cold oceans or land masses are generally drier. Whether the air is moving or stable does not much affect the humidity. Choice D, warm air, is the correct answer.
Q23. What happens to the air when a prevailing wind reaches a mountain range?
- A. It is blocked and starts to move backward.
- B. It rises and cools, causing condensation.
- C. It expands and heats, resulting in rain.
- D. It expands and heats, resulting in a dry, desertlike area.
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Answer: B
When a prevailing wind containing moisture reaches a mountain range, it rises and cools, causing condensation in rain or snow. The side of the mountain range on which this happens is called the windward side. Much of the moisture in the air is deposited on the windward side of a mountain range. When the air reaches the tops of the mountains, it starts to spill down the other side. As it descends, it heats up. The side of the mountain range on which this happens is called the leeward side. Often you will find deserts on the leeward side of a mountain range. The climate is drier on the leeward side. Choice B is the correct answer.
Q24. The erosion process is linked to the formation of which of the following types of rocks?
- A. Igneous
- B. Extrusive
- C. Sedimentary
- D. Metamorphic
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Answer: C
Igneous rocks (choice A) are formed from molten material that eventually cools. Extrusive rocks (choice B) are igneous rocks that have formed on or above the Earth’s surface. Metamorphic rocks (choice D) are created by high temperature and pressure. Sedimentary rocks (choice C) are formed by rock broken up into pieces and cemented together. The pieces can be large, as in a conglomerate, or small, such as shale or limestone. Choice C is the correct answer.
Q25. Scientists believe the universe is expanding because of which of the following indicators?
- A. The difference in time it takes for light from various stars to reach us
- B. The red shift in the spectra of stars
- C. The difference in the chemical composition of various stars
- D. The explosion of supernovas
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Answer: B
When objects move away from a viewer, the light waves they produce lengthen, shifting toward the red end of the spectrum. Scientists have observed that light from distant stars shifts toward the red end of the spectrum. This supports the conclusion that the universe is expanding. Choice B is the correct answer.