FREE EMT Practice Test 2025 Official Study Guide [PDF]

Last Updated on July 5, 2025

FREE NREMT EMT Practice Test Questions and Answers Quiz 2025. Download the Free Official Study Guide with a printable PDF. EMT certification, or Emergency Medical Technician certification, signifies that an individual has completed the required training and passed the necessary exams to provide basic emergency medical care.

To enhance your preparation, consider taking an EMT practice test that covers a variety of scenarios you may encounter during the exam.

Serving the public as an Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) is among today’s most rewarding careers. The overwhelming majority of states in the U.S. require that you pass the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) exam to become certified and work as an EMT. Certification through the NREMT indicates that you have demonstrated entry-level competency as an EMT.

Table of Contents

FREE EMT Practice Test 2025

The free EMT practice test available online is an excellent tool to gauge your knowledge and readiness.

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NREMT EMT Practice Test

NREMT EMT Practice Test
Emergency Medical Technician
Total Sample Items: 55
Time Limit: N/A

1 / 55

1) Which of the following is an example of an objective observation?

A) The patient is under the influence of alcohol or drugs.

B) The patient has slurred speech and an unsteady gait.

C) The patient is obviously intoxicated.

D) The patient is high on something.

2 / 55

2) Your trauma patient has lost an unknown amount of blood. The patient is alert, his pulse rate is slightly elevated, and his BP is normal. Based on this information, the patient is most likely experiencing:

A) Anaphylactic shock.

B) Compensated shock.

C) Neurogenic shock.

D) Decompensated shock.

3 / 55

3) During a negligence lawsuit, it is shown that the injury to the plaintiff was, at least in part, directly due to the EMT’s action or inaction. Which component of negligence is the EMT guilty of?

A) Breech of duty.

B) Gross incompetence.

C) Proximate cause.

D) Duty to act.

4 / 55

4) Which of the following is a formalized process to help emergency workers deal with stress?

A) Modified duty assignment.

B) Paid time off.

C) EMS stress management exercises.

D) Critical incident stress management.

5 / 55

5) You have just initiated BVM ventilations for your apneic patient. Which of the following is most important to help determine if artificial ventilations are being delivered effectively?

A) Auscultate lung sounds.

B) Palpate the chest.

C) Assess distal pulses.

D) Check the pupillary response.

6 / 55

6) Your patient is responsive only to painful stimuli. The airway is clear. How should you manage the patient’s airway?

A) Suction the airway.

B) Begin artificial ventilations.

C) Insert an NPA.

D) Insert an OPA.

7 / 55

7) Due to the risk of hypoxia, suction time should not exceed:

A) 15 seconds for an infant.

B) 30 seconds for a child.

C) 15 seconds for an adult.

D) 30 seconds for an adult.

8 / 55

8) EMTs can help administer, but cannot carry, which of the following medications?

A) MDI.

B) Oral glucose.

C) Oxygen.

D) Aspirin.

9 / 55

9) Which of the following is widely considered to mark the beginning of the modern EMS system?

A) A paper titled Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society.

B) A paper called the EMS Agenda for the Future.

C) The current National EMS Education Standards.

D) The creation of the American Heart Association.

10 / 55

10) You have completed the primary assessment on a conscious patient complaining of dyspnea. There is no trauma. Which of the following should be done next?

A) Check the posterior for any injuries.

B) Manage any secondary injuries.

C) Obtain a patient history.

D) Perform a detailed physical exam.

11 / 55

11) Which of the following statements regarding the primary assessment is correct?

A) The primary assessment is not necessary for conscious non-trauma patients.

B) The primary assessment always precedes the patient history.

C) The primary assessment may follow the patient history for medical patients.

D) The primary assessment should never take longer than 90 seconds.

12 / 55

12) Your trauma patient has a widening pulse pressure. You should suspect:

A) Pericardial tamponade.

B) A head injury.

C) Hypoperfusion.

D) Tension pneumothorax.

13 / 55

13) What is the purpose of the rapid scan?

A) Identify all secondary injuries.

B) Identify any remaining life-threats.

C) Reassess all injuries and interventions.

D) Assess and manage the ABCs.

14 / 55

14) What federal agency regulates all radio operations in the United States?

A) National Registry of EMTs.

B) Federal Communications Commission.

C) Federal Trade Commission.

D) Department of Transportation.

15 / 55

15) Which of the following provides the best protection from exposure to an airborne disease?

A) HEPA mask.

B) Long-sleeve gown.

C) Simple mask.

D) Mask with splash guard.

16 / 55

16) Which of the following moves is used when the scene is dangerous and the patient must be moved before providing care?

A) Critical move.

B) Urgent move.

C) Emergency move.

D) Non-urgent move.

17 / 55

17) Which of the following medications is used to reverse the effects of an opioid overdose?

A) Glucagon.

B) Albuterol.

C) Epinephrine.

D) Narcan.

18 / 55

18) Which of the following indicates the need for supplemental oxygen by nasal cannula or non-rebreather?

A) Slow and shallow respirations.

B) Warm, dry skin.

C) An SaO₂ reading of 93%.

D) Clear bilateral lung sounds.

19 / 55

19) While assessing an infant, you note depressed fontanelles. This indicates that the infant:

A) Has increased intracranial pressure.

B) Is perfusing normally.

C) Has been crying recently.

D) Is most likely dehydrated.

20 / 55

20) Which of the following medications is an adsorbent?

A) Epinephrine.

B) Activated charcoal.

C) Naloxone.

D) Oral glucose.

21 / 55

21) Which of the following statements regarding stress is correct?

A) EMTs can avoid stress by eating healthy and exercising.

B) Stress will eventually cause most EMTs to leave the profession.

C) Stress is an inevitable consequence of the profession.

D) Acute stress develops slowly due to repeat exposure to certain events.

22 / 55

22) Which of the following regarding homeostasis is correct?

A) Homeostasis is assured if all vital signs are within normal limits.

B) Homeostasis is a state of balance or equilibrium within the body.

C) The body works to avoid homeostasis over prolonged periods.

D) Patients who are alert and without pain are demonstrating homeostasis.

23 / 55

23) You have completed the primary assessment on an unresponsive multi-system trauma patient. Which of the following should be done next?

A) Obtain a patient history.

B) Document your findings and interventions.

C) Assess baseline vital signs.

D) Manage any secondary injuries.

24 / 55

24) You are called to a business for a patient with dizziness, headache, and nausea. As you enter the business, you detect a strong odor and your eyes begin to water. You should immediately:

A) Determine the cause of the odor and notify your dispatcher.

B) Apply a mask and safety goggles before continuing.

C) Attempt to locate the caller and remove him.

D) Leave the area and call for additional resources.

25 / 55

25) Which of the following medications is administered enterally?

A) Nitroglycerin.

B) Naloxone.

C) Oral glucose.

D) EpiPen.

26 / 55

26) Which of the following is a common side effect of nitroglycerin administration?

A) Reduced heart rate.

B) Reduced blood pressure.

C) Decreased chest pain.

D) Elevated blood pressure.

27 / 55

27) EMT roles and responsibilities include:

A) The ability to establish intraosseous access.

B) Initial investigation at a crime scene.

C) Swift water rescue operations.

D) Strong written and verbal communication skills.

28 / 55

28) While obtaining a patient history, you note the patient takes several prescription medications daily. This is known as:

A) Unipharmacy.

B) Copharmacy.

C) Multimeds.

D) Polypharmacy.

29 / 55

29) Which of the following terms refers to the degree of care a reasonable person with similar training should provide in a similar situation?

A) EMS expectation clause.

B) Scope of practice.

C) Standardized curriculum.

D) Standard of care.

30 / 55

30) Your patient presents with signs and symptoms of hypoperfusion. You note the patient’s blood pressure is lower each time you reassess vitals. This indicates the patient:

A) Is in decompensated shock.

B) Has undiscovered injuries.

C) Is adequately compensating.

D) Is in irreversible shock.

31 / 55

31) EMS care today is based on:

A) Whatever physicians recommend.

B) What has been done in the past.

C) The original National Standard Curriculum.

D) Evidence-based medicine.

32 / 55

32) Which of the following is the backup system to the CO₂ drive?

A) Hypoxic drive.

B) Oxygen drive.

C) Carbon dioxide drive.

D) Anoxic drive.

33 / 55

33) Eating disorders are more common among which of the following age groups?

A) Toddlers.

B) School age.

C) Adolescents.

D) Older adults.

34 / 55

34) Which of the following statements is correct?

A) Physical and mental acuity peaks in late adulthood.

B) Mild physical decline typically develops in the young adult age group.

C) Accidental trauma is a leading cause of death in the young adult age group.

D) Women typically experience menopause during early adulthood.

35 / 55

35) Which of the following EMT activities is considered high risk for the patient?

A) Obtaining a blood glucose test.

B) Transferring patient care.

C) Requesting permission to treat.

D) Assessment of vital signs.

36 / 55

36) Which of the following statements regarding shock in pediatric patients is correct?

A) Pediatric patients rarely develop shock.

B) Pediatric patients can be in serious danger and still present without hypotension.

C) Signs of shock with hypotension are not usually serious in pediatric patients.

D) Pediatric patients tend to become hypotensive even during compensated shock.

37 / 55

37) From anatomical position, which of the following is the lateral bone in the forearm?

A) The humerus.

B) The tibia.

C) The ulna.

D) The radius.

38 / 55

38) You are assessing your patient for signs and symptoms of shock. You note tachycardia and pale, cool skin. These findings are:

A) Examples of the body’s defense mechanisms.

B) Not likely related to the patient’s state of shock.

C) Indications the patient is not in shock.

D) Signs of impending circulatory collapse.

39 / 55

39) Your medical direction has just ordered administration of a medication for your patient. You should immediately:

A) Ask the physician to verbally acknowledge that you are allowed to give the medication.

B) Check with one additional physician to confirm the order is correct.

C) Repeat the order back to ensure you have understood it correctly.

D) Administer the medication as directed.

40 / 55

40) Which of the following is always your first priority while performing a physical exam on a patient?

A) Requesting additional resources as needed.

B) Initiate transport within 10 minutes.

C) You and your partner’s safety.

D) Identify and manage life-threatening conditions.

41 / 55

41) Your 5-year-old patient is unresponsive. To determine if chest compressions are indicated, you should immediately assess the:

A) Brachial pulse.

B) Radial pulse.

C) Carotid pulse.

D) Pedal pulse.

42 / 55

42) Shock, or hypoperfusion, describes a state of:

A) Inadequate tissue perfusion.

B) Hypotension.

C) Irreversible system collapse.

D) Hypoxia.

43 / 55

43) To ease a child’s anxiety, it is usually best to:

A) Transport rapidly.

B) Isolate the child.

C) Avoid eye contact.

D) Keep caregivers close by.

44 / 55

44) Which of the following describes the EMT level of training?

A) Provides basic, immediate care including bleeding control, CPR, AED, and emergency childbirth.

B) Includes advanced assessment and management skills, various invasive skills, and extensive pharmacology interventions.

C) Includes oxygen and ventilation skills, pulse oximetry, and administration of certain medications.

D) Includes advanced airway devices, intravenous and intraosseous access, and blood glucose monitoring.

45 / 55

45) Which of the following terms refers to the actions an EMS provider is legally allowed to perform based on his or her license or certification level?

A) Duty to act.

B) Doctrine of certification.

C) Scope of practice.

D) Standard of care.

46 / 55

46) Symptoms that are important to consider, but denied by the patient are known as:

A) Pertinent negatives.

B) Irrelevant assessments.

C) Chief complaints.

D) Dissociated symptoms.

47 / 55

47) During your assessment, you note the patient has irregular breathing. This means the patient:

A) Has minimal chest rise with each breath.

B) Presents with an abnormal breathing pattern.

C) Has an increased work of breathing.

D) Requires immediate ventilatory support.

48 / 55

48) Which of the following is a definitive sign of death?

A) Decapitation.

B) Apnea.

C) Pulselessness.

D) Unresponsiveness.

49 / 55

49) Ventral refers to the:

A) Anterior surface.

B) Lateral aspect.

C) Posterior surface.

D) Medial aspect.

50 / 55

50) The frontal plane divides the body into:

A) Left and right sides.

B) Top and bottom halves.

C) Anterior and posterior.

D) Proximal and distal.

51 / 55

51) Which of the following statements regarding EMS radio communications is correct?

A) State “over and out” at the end of each radio transmission.

B) Use clear text, not radio codes, for EMS communications.

C) Use the 10 codes approved by the NREMT.

D) Begin and end radio transmissions with “please” and “thank you.”

52 / 55

52) Your adult patient is unconscious, breathing adequately, and has a pulse. There is no indication of trauma. The patient should be positioned:

A) Prone.

B) In the shock position.

C) Recovery position.

D) Supine.

53 / 55

53) Your patient is two years old. She would be considered a(n):

A) Preschooler.

B) Infant.

C) Toddler.

D) Neonate.

54 / 55

54) Which of the following are specific to resuscitation efforts and do not affect treatment prior to the patient entering cardiac arrest?

A) Living will.

B) Medical power of attorney.

C) DNR order.

D) Advance directive.

55 / 55

55) Which of the following statements regarding the transfer of care report is correct?

A) Transfer of care must include a verbal report to an equal or higher medical authority.

B) Transfer of care is not allowed until you complete your documentation form.

C) Transfer of care can be made to anyone as long as the patient agrees.

D) Transfer of care must always be to the accepting physician.

Your score is

Try more tests

The NREMT certification exam is a “pass/fail” test. Its purpose is not to identify who is the “best” but to identify who is “competent.” Your future patients don’t care what you score on your certification exam.

They care about receiving competent and compassionate care for themselves and those they care about. This Crash Course gives you the essential information you need to prepare for the NREMT certification exam.

Completing an EMT practice test can significantly boost your confidence leading up to the certification exam.

Section Wise Test

EMT Exam:

The NREMT exam presents a series of multiple-choice questions designed with one best answer. It’s essential to understand that this adaptive test adjusts its difficulty according to your responses. Answering a question correctly typically leads to a slightly more challenging question, whereas an incorrect answer prompts a more straightforward question.

Many candidates find that reviewing an EMT practice test helps them identify areas where they need further study.

Test Name	NREMT Practice Test 2025
Test purpose	Certification of EMT
Total Items	70–120 questions
Question Type	Multiple Choice Question
Test mode	computerized adaptive test (CAT)
Time Limit	2 hours
Test Retake	After 14 days
On-Screen Calculator	Yes
EMT result validity	24 months
Application fee	$104
Testing Authority	Pearson VUE

Your NREMT exam will likely have between 70 and 120 questions. You will have two hours to complete the test. Less than 1% of candidates are unable to complete the exam within the allotted time. Take the time to read every question carefully. All questions will be multiple-choice, and each question will have four answer choices. You need to choose the “best” answer for the question posed.

Utilizing an EMT practice test will help you familiarize yourself with the exam format and types of questions.

Cognitive and Psychomotor Exams

EMT certification also includes passing cognitive and psychomotor exams. The cognitive exam assesses your understanding of emergency care fundamentals through questions covering medical emergencies, cardiology, trauma, and other related topics. The psychomotor exam puts your hands-on abilities to the test—everything from patient assessment to managing cardiac arrest scenarios.

Incorporating an EMT practice test into your study routine can streamline your exam preparation process.

Exam Result/Scoring

Typically, you can retrieve your score from the NREMT website 24 hours after you complete the exam. If you fail the exam, the NREMT will provide some detailed information about your performance in each of the exam categories. Candidates must wait at least 14 days before retaking the test.

After your exam, consider taking another EMT practice test to assess your understanding of the material.

The score report will highlight your strengths and weaknesses across various content areas, including airway, respiration, and ventilation; cardiology and resuscitation; trauma; medical, obstetric, and gynecologic care; and other relevant areas. If you see “above passing,” it means you answered these questions correctly at a level beyond the minimum standard.

“Near passing” indicates that you were close to the threshold, while “below passing” signifies that you need considerable improvement in that area. Beginning your analysis here allows you to understand where your knowledge base stands and which areas will require more focus if a retake is necessary.

Remember, regular practice with an EMT practice test is key to mastering the content areas covered in the exam.

Updates: https://www.nremt.org/EMT/Certification

EMT Certification Handbook