NREMT Medical/Obstetrics/Gynecology Practice Test 2022 Questions Answers PDF. You can also download printable PDFs for EMR, EMT, AEMT, and Paramedic practice tests for better National Registry EMT test prep online.
NREMT Medical/Obstetrics/Gynecology Practice Test
Q1. A 33-year-old male patient has been involved in a motor vehicle crash and has an open abdominal injury with a protruding bowel secondary to being partially ejected from the vehicle. Your treatment of the injury should include:
- (A) replacing the exposed bowel
- (B) keeping the patient’s legs straight
- (C) covering the exposed bowel with a sterile dressing moistened with saline
- (D) covering the bowel with dry sterile gauze prior to transport
Q2. Signs and symptoms of pelvic inflammatory disease include all of the following except:
- (A) diffuse lower abdominal pain
(B) vaginal discharge
Q3. The first 2 weeks of the menstrual cycle is called:
- (A) the proliferative phase
- (B) the secretory phase
- (C) the ischemic phase
- (D) the menopausal phase
Q4. Emotional and physical characteristics of adolescents include:
- (A) believing that, generally, nothing bad can happen to them
- (B) concerns about death and disability first emerge in this age group
- (C) believing the illness or injury that they have is some form of punishment
- (D) having vivid imaginations and being able to dramatize events
Q5. When examining and caring for an infant:
- (A) begin your assessment with the head and end with the feet
- (B) complete your scene size-up and primary assessment from across the room
- (C) explain each procedure that you are going to do to the infant
- (D) separate the infant from the caregiver during assessment
Q3. An 8-year-old child:
- (A) has no understanding of what EMS is about
- (B) is preoccupied with his/her body and is extremely concerned about modesty
- (C) is the most difficult to manage
- (D) is able to rationalize, and may be curious about what you are doing
Q4. When treating a child which of the following you should keep in mind?
- (A) The child’s ribs are more rigid than an adult’s.
- (B) The tracheal diameter of a newborn is the same as that of an adult.
- (C) The child’s skin surface is small compared to body mass.
- (D) Infants and children have a higher metabolic rate, so periods of poor oxygenation can be more dangerous.
Q5. Which of the following is correct regarding infants’ and children’s respiratory status?
- (A) Compensatory mechanisms are the same as an adult’s, and they will both gradually deteriorate.
- (B) The leading cause of cardiac arrest in infants and children is failure of the respiratory system.
- (C) It is not important to distinguish between an upper airway obstruction from a foreign body and an obstruction caused by a respiratory condition.
- (D) Determining the origin of the child’s respiratory dysfunction is essential in the pre-hospital setting to appropriately care for the patient.
Q6. A child is displaying nasal flaring and retractions, but is maintaining an adequate respiratory rate and depth. This child is in:
- (A) decompensated respiratory failure
- (B) compensated respiratory failure
- (C) early decompensated failure
- (D) late respiratory distress
Q7. Indications that a pediatric patient has a partial airway obstruction include:
- (A) crowing or other noisy respirations
- (B) ineffective or absent cough
- (C) no crying or talking
- (D) unresponsiveness
Q8. Important sounds to listen for include:
- (A) stridor, which sounds like rolling a few strands of hair near the ear
- (B) crackles, which are harsh, high-pitched sounds that occur during inspiration
- (C) rales, which are loud, gurgling sounds occurring during exhalation
- (D) wheezing, which is caused by air moving at a high rate through narrowed bronchioles
Q9. While assessing the circulation of a 2-year-old child, you should check all of the following except:
- (A) warmth and color of hands and feet
- (B) mental status
- (C) blood pressure
- (D) capillary refill
Q10. An EMT is permitted, with medical direction, to administer, or assist the patient in administering, all of the following except:
- (A) nitroglycerin
- (B) oxygen
- (C) penicillin
- (D) oral glucose
Q11. Medications administered sublingually are:
- (A) swallowed
- (B) inhaled
- (C) dissolved under the tongue
- (D) injected under the skin
Q12. Which of the following is true regarding medication routes of administration?
- (A) Most medications administered by the EMT are administered by injection.
- (B) All medications are administered by the oral route.
- (C) The route that is chosen controls how quickly the medication is absorbed by the body.
- (D) Drugs administered by the sublingual route have a relatively slow rate of absorption.
Q13. A drug administered by an EMT, and used for a wide range of medical and traumatic emergencies is:
- (A) Tylenol
- (B) glucose
- (C) nitroglycerin
- (D) oxygen
Q14. The EMT may administer which of the following medications to treat a severe allergic reaction?
- (A) Glutose
- (B) Adrenalin
- (C) Liqui-Char
- (D) Alupent
Q15. A 26-year-old female patient has breathing difficulty, and has been prescribed a bronchodilator. Having met all the requirements to administer the medication, the steps include:
- (A) placing the patient on a nasal cannula for convenience
- (B) leaving the oxygen off the patient until you can assess if the medication worked
- (C) having the patient inhale fully, then place her lips around the mouthpiece
- (D) having the patient hold her breath as long as is comfortable after inhaling the medication
Q16. When administering a metered-dose inhaler, tips for the procedure include:
- (A) depressing the canister just before the patient begins inhaling
- (B) coaching the patient to hold his breath as long as possible
- (C) having the patient breathe in and out quickly
- (D) being careful not to shake the canister
Q17. Which of the following conditions indicates a predelivery emergency for a pregnant patient?
- (A) Swelling of the face and/or extremities
- (B) A fever
- (C) Flu-like symptoms
- (D) Nausea
Q18. Which of the following is true regarding trauma to a pregnant woman?
- (A) Keep spine boards absolutely flat to facilitate blood flow to the fetus.
- (B) Even minor trauma to the abdomen can cause serious fetal injuries.
- (C) Early signs of shock are very obvious in pregnant women.
- (D) If a pregnant woman dies as a result of an accident, cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) may save the life of the unborn infant.
Q19. Expect delivery of the infant within a few minutes if:
- (A) the patient’s “water breaks”
- (B) the patient’s abdomen gets very soft
- (C) the patient has the sensation of a bowel movement
- (D) contractions are 5 minutes apart, and last 15 to 30 seconds
Q20. Emergency care of the patient in active labor for a normal delivery includes:
- (A) immediately clamping and cutting the umbilical cord if wrapped around the infant’s neck
- (B) suctioning the infant’s nose first, as newborns are obligate nose-breathers
- (C) exerting gentle pressure against the infant’s skull to prevent explosive delivery
- (D) having the patient lay on her left side during the delivery
Q21. As your patient delivers the infant, your emergency medical care should include:
- (A) holding the infant upside down by the feet to help drain fluid
- (B) cutting, then clamping, the umbilical cord
- (C) massaging the uterus to decrease vaginal bleeding after delivery
- (D) yanking on the umbilical cord after delivery to assist with placental expulsion
Q22. Which of the following is not a correct treatment for a cord presentation?
- (A) Cover the cord with a saline-moist, sterile towel.
- (B) With a sterile gloved hand, place the cord back into the vagina.
- (C) Position the mother with her head down in the “knee-chest” position.
- (D) Insert a sterile gloved hand into the vagina and push the presenting part of the fetus back and away from the cord.
Q23. Meconium staining is:
- (A) the passing of a bowel movement by the infant in the amniotic fluid
- (B) urine expelled by the infant during delivery
- (C) a yellowish bubbly fluid caused by the infant’s lungs being compressed during delivery
- (D) blood that has leaked out of the umbilical cord during delivery
Q24. Additional care that you should provide to a premature infant includes:
- (A) not suctioning the infant’s mouth, as you may cause trauma
- (B) placing a surgical mask on the infant’s face to prevent contamination
- (C) drying the infant thoroughly and wrapping in warm blankets, covering the head
- (D) applying high-concentration oxygen by a pediatric non-rebreather mask
Q25. The signs of a severely depressed newborn include:
- (A) poor or absent skeletal muscle tone
- (B) an APGAR score of under 6
- (C) a heart rate over 140 or under 100 beats/min
- (D) a respiratory rate under 60 beats/min
Q26. An abnormally low placenta may tear or separate from the uterus, causing painless hemorrhaging. This condition is known as:
- (A) ectopic pregnancy
- (B) ruptured uterus
- (C) placenta previa
- (D) abruptio placenta
Q27. Eclampsia most frequently occurs during the last trimester and most often affects women in their 20s who are pregnant for the first time. Signs and symptoms of toxemia, or eclampsia, include:
- (A) vaginal bleeding without pain
- (B) increased urinary output
- (C) seizures
- (D) history of severe allergic reactions
Q28. An ectopic pregnancy means:
- (A) the egg has implanted outside the uterus
- (B) a naturally aborted fetus due to any number of reasons
- (C) a pregnancy that continues past the expected due date
- (D) the fetus is developing in an abnormal position in the uterus
Q29. The fetus, or unborn infant, develops in the:
- (A) vagina
- (B) placenta
- (C) cervix
- (D) uterus
Q30. The organ through which the fetus receives oxygen and nourishment from the mother is the:
- (A) placenta
- (B) umbilical cord
- (C) amniotic sac
- (D) uterus
Q31. The fluid-filled bag in which the infant floats is called the:
- (A) placenta
- (B) uterus
- (C) amniotic sac
- (D) vagina
Q32. During the first stage of labor, which of the following occurs?
- (A) The placenta separates from the uterine wall.
- (B) The cervix becomes fully dilate(D)
- (C) The infant’s head appears at the opening of the birth canal.
- (D) All of the above.
Q33. Indications that delivery is imminent include:
- (A) the onset of contractions
- (B) bulging of the perineum
- (C) the “bloody show”
- (D) the breaking of the amniotic sac
Q34. During the third stage of labor which of the following takes place?
- (A) The infant is actually delivered.
- (B) The amniotic sac ruptures.
- (C) The placenta is expelled from the uterus.
- (D) The head of the infant appears at the opening of the birth canal.
Q35. Questions that should be asked regarding due date include which of the following?
- (A) How many previous pregnancies are there?
- (B) How many children does the patient have?
- (C) Has the patient had any prenatal care?
- (D) All of the above