CPC Coding Guideline Practice Test

Last Updated on June 24, 2024

CPC Coding Guideline Practice Test – Questions Answers with Explanation. Try our free American Academy of Professional Coders (AAPC) Certified Professional Coder (CPC) HCPCS Level II review questions and answers for better CPC certification prep.

Table of Contents

CPC Coding Guideline Practice Test

These questions are designed to test knowledge of coding guidelines, covering fundamental principles and specific clinical scenarios that a medical coder might encounter in a professional setting.

Basic Questions

Q1. What modifier indicates that more than one physician performed a service or procedure?

(A) 22
(B) 52
(C) 62
(D) 80

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Answer Key: C

Rationale: Modifier 62 indicates that two surgeons worked together as primary surgeons performing distinct parts of a procedure.

Q2. Which modifier indicates that a procedure or service was discontinued?

(A) 50
(B) 53
(C) 52
(D) 59

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Answer Key: B

Rationale: Modifier 53 is used to indicate that a procedure was discontinued due to extenuating circumstances or those threatening the patient’s well-being.

Q3. What does the modifier -LT stand for?

(A) Bilateral procedure
(B) Left side
(C) Laboratory test
(D) Limited procedure

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Answer Key: B

Rationale: Modifier -LT is used to indicate a procedure performed on the left side of the body.

Q4. What is the purpose of modifier -59?

(A) To indicate a bilateral procedure
(B) To indicate a distinct procedural service
(C) To indicate a staged or related procedure
(D) To indicate an unrelated procedure by the same physician during the postoperative period

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Answer Key: B

Rationale: Modifier -59 is used to indicate a distinct procedural service that is not normally reported together but is appropriate under the circumstances.

Q5. Which modifier is used for a partially reduced or eliminated procedure at the physician’s discretion?

(A) 22
(B) 52
(C) 53
(D) 54

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Answer Key: B

Rationale: Modifier 52 indicates that a service or procedure was partially reduced or eliminated at the physician’s discretion.

Q6. What is the correct use of modifier -25?

(A) When a significant, separately identifiable E/M service is performed by the same physician on the same day as another procedure or service
(B) When the same physician repeats a procedure
(C) When a procedure is performed on both sides of the body
(D) When a procedure is performed under difficult circumstances

View Correct Answer

Answer Key: A

Rationale: Modifier -25 indicates that a significant, separately identifiable E/M service was provided by the same physician on the same day as another procedure or service.

Q7. Which modifier indicates that a procedure was performed on the right side of the body?

(A) -LT
(B) -RT
(C) -50
(D) -22

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Answer Key: B

Rationale: Modifier -RT indicates that a procedure was performed on the right side of the body.

Scenario-Based Questions

Q8. A patient undergoes a bilateral knee arthroscopy. Which modifier should be used?

(A) -50
(B) -RT
(C) -LT
(D) -51

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Answer Key: A

Rationale: Modifier -50 is used to indicate that a procedure was performed bilaterally.

Q9. During a follow-up visit within the global period of a surgery, the physician performs a procedure unrelated to the surgery. Which modifier should be used for the new procedure?

(A) -58
(B) -24
(C) -79
(D) -25

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Answer Key: C

Rationale: Modifier -79 is used to indicate that the same physician performed an unrelated procedure or service during the postoperative period.

Q10. A surgeon performs an appendectomy and a cholecystectomy during the same operative session. Which modifier should be used for the cholecystectomy?

(A) -50
(B) -59
(C) -51
(D) -58

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Answer Key: C

Rationale: Modifier -51 indicates that multiple procedures were performed during the same operative session.

Q11. A procedure was performed on an infant in critical condition, requiring significantly more work than usual. Which modifier should be used?

(A) -22
(B) -24
(C) -25
(D) -26

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Answer Key: A

Rationale: Modifier -22 indicates that a procedure requires significantly more work than usual due to unusual or complex circumstances.

Q12. A patient has a planned return to the operating room for a staged procedure. Which modifier should be appended to the CPT code for the staged procedure?

(A) -52
(B) -58
(C) -78
(D) -79

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Answer Key: B

Rationale: Modifier -58 indicates that a staged or related procedure or service was planned or anticipated during the postoperative period.

Q13. A patient undergoes an emergency cesarean section due to fetal distress. Which modifier should be used to indicate the urgency of the procedure?

(A) -25
(B) -22
(C) -76
(D) -52

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Answer Key: B

Rationale: Modifier -22 indicates increased procedural services due to the emergency nature and complexity of the procedure.

Q14. A physician performs a colonoscopy and removes two polyps, one by hot biopsy forceps and one by snare technique. Which modifier should be used to indicate multiple procedures?

(A) -51
(B) -59
(C) -50
(D) -76

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Answer Key: B

Rationale: Modifier -59 indicates a distinct procedural service, which is appropriate when different techniques are used to remove polyps during the same colonoscopy.

Q15. A patient receives both preventive and problem-oriented evaluation and management (E/M) services on the same day by the same physician. Which modifier should be appended to the problem-oriented E/M code?

(A) -24
(B) -25
(C) -32
(D) -57

View Correct Answer

Answer Key: B

Rationale: Modifier -25 indicates that a significant, separately identifiable E/M service was provided by the same physician on the same day as a preventive service.

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