Medical Assistant Clinical Knowledge Practice Test 2024

Medical Assistant Clinical Knowledge Practice Test 2024 Questions Answers. Try our free Medical Assistant exams (like CMA, RMA, CCMA, NCMA, CMAC) Clinical Knowledge with patients in the Clinical Setting review question answer. You can also download it in PDF format for any Medical Assistant exams.

Asepsis refers to the practice of eliminating contaminants in medical or surgical environments. Even though intact skin is a good barrier against microbial contamination, a patient can become colonized with microbes if appropriate precautions are not taken. Education and training are critical elements of asepsis and infection control because they facilitate appropriate decision-making. Thus, many of the aseptic techniques will be asked about during the exam.

Medical Assistant Clinical Knowledge Practice Test 2024

Q1. What does the term “asepsis” mean?

• A. Weekly autoclaving
• B. The absence of or the control of microorganisms
• C. Disinfecting surgical equipment
• D. Standard precautions
• E. Proper immunization

Q2. Which process is a common method used in medical offices to destroy all living organisms?

• A. Autoclaving
• B. Cleansing
• C. Disinfecting
• D. Sanitizing
• E. Immunization

Q3. When achieving medical asepsis, which of the following techniques is used as the first line of defense against microorganisms?

• A. Disinfecting countertops
• B. Autoclaving
• C. Handwashing
• D. Sanitizing
• E. Immunization

Q4. Which of the following organizations has established standards for safe working medical environments?

• A. American Medical Association (AMA)
• B. National Institutes of Health (NIH)
• C. Ambulatory Health Care Standards (AHCS)
• D. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
• E. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

Q5. How is tuberculosis spread from person to person?

• A. Sexual contact
• B. Fecal contamination
• C. Dirty needles
• D. Respiratory droplets
• E. Mosquito bites

Q6. _____________ is a technique that uses disinfectants on countertops to remove or inhibit growth of bacteria.

• A. Sanitization
• B. Surgical asepsis
• C. Autoclaving
• D. Scrubbing
• E. Chemical disinfection

Q7. All of the following are personal protective equipment EXCEPT

• A. gloves.
• B. gowns.
• C. masks.
• D. hairnets.
• E. goggles.

Q8. Which of the following techniques is used to eliminate all microorganisms in the environment?

• A. Standard precautions
• B. Isolation
• C. Reverse isolation
• D. Chemotherapy
• E. Surgical asepsis

Q9. Which of the following describes all of the elements necessary for disease to spread?

• A. Portal of entry
• B. Means of transmission
• C. Nosocomial infection
• D. Epidemiology
• E. Chain of infection

Q10. During proper autoclaving, what is the temperature and pressure of the steam?

• A. Steam temperature at 250 degrees Fahrenheit; steam pressure of 10 lb
• B. Steam temperature at 250 degrees Fahrenheit; steam pressure of 15 lb
• C. Steam temperature at 150 degrees Fahrenheit; steam pressure of 10 lb
• D. Steam temperature at 150 degrees Fahrenheit; steam pressure of 15 lb
• E. All of the above would be appropriate for autoclaving.

Q11. What is the process of washing and removing debris from medical instruments called?

• A. Surgical asepsis
• B. Chemical disinfection
• C. Sanitization
• D. Autoclaving
• E. Handwashing

Q12. Before applying sterile surgical gloves, which of the following steps is most important to do first?

• A. Wash hands with warm, soapy water
• B. Disinfect wounds
• C. Put on surgical apron
• D. Apply moisturizer to hands
• E. Surgical scrub

Q13. When using an autoclave, how does one know that sterilization has been achieved?

• A. Dry autoclave wraps
• B. Color change on indicator strip
• C. Steam when opening up the autoclave
• D. Shiny instruments
• E. Bacterial spores on culture test

Q14. To which of the following pathogen groups would Candida belong?

• A. Bacteria
• B. Fungi
• C. Protozoa
• D. Viruses
• E. None of the above

Q15. In the chain of infection, which link would an elderly patient with poor nutrition fall under?

• A. Reservoir
• B. Portal of exit from reservoir
• C. Mode of transmission
• D. Portal of entry to host
• E. Susceptible host

Q16. A patient is bleeding from a wound. Transmission of infection could be prevented if which link in the chain of infection is managed first?

• A. Reservoir
• B. Portal of exit from reservoir
• C. Mode of transmission
• D. Portal of entry to host
• E. Susceptible host

Q17. Which sterilization method is most appropriate for a fiber-optic endoscope?

• A. Steam sterilization
• B. Gas sterilization
• C. Dry heat sterilization
• D. Chemical sterilization
• E. All of the above would be appropriate.

Q18. Which of the following instruments can be used to set up a sterile field?

• A. Dry transfer forceps
• B. Wet transfer forceps
• C. Sponge forceps
• D. Scalpel
• E. Towel clamp

Q19. The main objective of medical asepsis is to

• A. maintain standard precautions.
• B. use steam sterilization to eliminate spores.
• C. reduce the number of microorganisms.
• D. isolate pathogens.
• E. facilitate transmission to susceptible hosts.

Q20. Which liquid should be used for autoclaving?

• A. Distilled water
• B. Tap water
• C. Alcohol
• D. Bleach
• E. Soapy liquid

Q21. The normal speed for an EKG machine is

• (A) 5 mm/second
• (B) 25 mm/second
• (C) 25 mm/minute
• (D) 50 mm/second
• (E) 50 mm/minute

Q22. To take vital signs on an infant, the medical assistant should

• (A) have the parent place the child on the exam table
• (B) ask the parent to leave the room
• (C) take the pulse using the radial artery and place your hand on the child’s chest to feel the respiration
• (D) use the stethoscope to listen to the heart and lungs while the parent holds the child
• (E) ask the parent to take the vital signs and record them in the chart

Q23. If a patient has orthopnea, the medical assistant should position them on the exam table in the

• (A) lithotomy position
• (B) Sims’s position
• (C) Trendelenburg position
• (D) Fowler’s position
• (E) supine position

Q24. The Snellen test measures

• (A) visual acuity
• (B) bone conduction
• (C) color vision
• (D) near vision
• (E) nerve conduction

Q25. In which section of the chart would information about the patient’s smoking habits and employment be documented?

• (A) Review of systems
• (B) Family history
• (C) Social history
• (D) Miscellaneous
• (E) Plan of care

Q26. It is appropriate to check the carotid pulse if

• (A) the patient is uncooperative
• (B) the patient has a cast on the left arm
• (C) the patient has fainted
• (D) the patient refuses to have a rectal temperature taken
• (E) the patient has just drunk a cold beverage

Q27. Screening for osteoporosis would include

• (A) plotting the weight and height graph of all children until age 18
• (B) calculating the BMI for all patients
• (C) carefully measuring the height of older adult patients
• (D) using a tape measure to measure the uterine fundus in a pregnant patient
• (E) asking all patients about their sleep habits

Q28. Which of the following would the medical assistant hand to the physician if she wanted to check the pupils of the eye?

• (A) Otoscope
• (B) Tuning fork
• (C) Speculum
• (D) Ophthalmoscope
• (E) Snellen test

Q29. The agency that sets standards for the disposal of infectious waste is

• (A) CDC
• (B) DEA
• (C) OSHA
• (D) CBC
• (E) FBI

Q30. All of the following are artifacts in an EKG tracing except:

• (A) AC interference
• (B) DC interference
• (C) interrupted baseline
• (D) somatic tremor
• (E) wandering baseline

Q31. An instrument that would be used to examine the eyes is a(n)

• (A) audiometer
• (B) ophthalmoscope
• (C) otoscope
• (D) Ishihara chart
• (E) Snellen chart

Q32. Which of the following is NOT an example of proper body mechanics?

• (A) Avoid lifting items over your head.
• (B) Bend at the knees and keep your back straight when lifting objects.
• (C) Instruct the patient to put both arms around your neck for stability as you help the patient to stand.
• (D) Instruct the patient to assist as much as possible and use a gait belt as you help the patient to stand.
• (E) Stand on the patient’s stronger side when assisting in ambulation.

Q33. Which of the following sequences represents the waveforms of the EKG in the correct order?

• (A) A,B,C,D,E
• (B) P,Q,R,S,T
• (C) P,T,Q,R,S
• (D) Q,R,S,T,P
• (E) R,S,T,P,Q

Q34. The aseptic process that is aimed at removing all microorganisms, including spores, is called

• (A) sanitization
• (B) sterilization
• (C) disinfection
• (D) hand washing
• (E) gloving

Q35. A patient has developed antibodies to varicella (chickenpox). What part of the chain of infection has been broken in this case that would provide protection from disease?

• (A) Infectious agent
• (B) Portal of entry
• (C) Portal of exit
• (D) Susceptible host
• (E) Reservoir

See also:

• Medical Assistant Practice Test 2024
• Medical Assistant Anatomy and Physiology Practice Test
• Medical Assistant Nutrition Practice Test
• Medical Assistant Pathology Practice Test 
• Medical Assistant Patient & Communications Practice Test
• Medical Assistant Professionalism Practice Test
• Medical Assistant Office Administration and Technology Practice Test
• Medical Assistant Finance Practice Test 
• Medical Assistant Clinical Knowledge Practice Test
• Medical Assistant Laboratory Work Practice Test