Medical Assistant Clinical Knowledge Practice Test

Medical Assistant Clinical Knowledge Practice Test Questions Answers. Try our free Medical Assistant exams (like CMARMA, CCMA, NCMA, CMAC) Clinical Knowledge with patients in the Clinical Setting review question answer. You can also download it in PDF format for any Medical Assistant exams.

Asepsis refers to the practice of eliminating contaminants in medical or surgical environments. Even though intact skin is a good barrier against microbial contamination, a patient can become colonized with microbes if appropriate precautions are not taken. Education and training are critical elements of asepsis and infection control because they facilitate appropriate decision-making. Thus, many of the aseptic techniques will be asked about during the exam.

Medical Assistant Clinical Knowledge Practice Test

Q1. What does the term “asepsis” mean?

  • A. Weekly autoclaving
  • B. The absence of or the control of microorganisms
  • C. Disinfecting surgical equipment
  • D. Standard precautions
  • E. Proper immunization
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Answer Key:  B 

Q2. Which process is a common method used in medical offices to destroy all living organisms?

  • A. Autoclaving
  • B. Cleansing
  • C. Disinfecting
  • D. Sanitizing
  • E. Immunization
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Answer Key:  A 

Q3. When achieving medical asepsis, which of the following techniques is used as the first line of defense against microorganisms?

  • A. Disinfecting countertops
  • B. Autoclaving
  • C. Handwashing
  • D. Sanitizing
  • E. Immunization
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Answer Key:  C 

Q4. Which of the following organizations has established standards for safe working medical environments?

  • A. American Medical Association (AMA)
  • B. National Institutes of Health (NIH)
  • C. Ambulatory Health Care Standards (AHCS)
  • D. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
  • E. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
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Answer Key: D 

Q5. How is tuberculosis spread from person to person?

  • A. Sexual contact
  • B. Fecal contamination
  • C. Dirty needles
  • D. Respiratory droplets
  • E. Mosquito bites
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Answer Key:   D

Q6. _____________ is a technique that uses disinfectants on countertops to remove or inhibit growth of bacteria.

  • A. Sanitization
  • B. Surgical asepsis
  • C. Autoclaving
  • D. Scrubbing
  • E. Chemical disinfection
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Answer Key:  E 

Q7. All of the following are personal protective equipment EXCEPT

  • A. gloves.
  • B. gowns.
  • C. masks.
  • D. hairnets.
  • E. goggles.
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Answer Key:  D 

Q8. Which of the following techniques is used to eliminate all microorganisms in the environment?

  • A. Standard precautions
  • B. Isolation
  • C. Reverse isolation
  • D. Chemotherapy
  • E. Surgical asepsis
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Answer Key:   E

Q9. Which of the following describes all of the elements necessary for disease to spread?

  • A. Portal of entry
  • B. Means of transmission
  • C. Nosocomial infection
  • D. Epidemiology
  • E. Chain of infection
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Answer Key:  E 

Q10. During proper autoclaving, what is the temperature and pressure of the steam?

  • A. Steam temperature at 250 degrees Fahrenheit; steam pressure of 10 lb
  • B. Steam temperature at 250 degrees Fahrenheit; steam pressure of 15 lb
  • C. Steam temperature at 150 degrees Fahrenheit; steam pressure of 10 lb
  • D. Steam temperature at 150 degrees Fahrenheit; steam pressure of 15 lb
  • E. All of the above would be appropriate for autoclaving.
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Answer Key: B   

Q11. What is the process of washing and removing debris from medical instruments called?

  • A. Surgical asepsis
  • B. Chemical disinfection
  • C. Sanitization
  • D. Autoclaving
  • E. Handwashing
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Answer Key:  C 

Q12. Before applying sterile surgical gloves, which of the following steps is most important to do first?

  • A. Wash hands with warm, soapy water
  • B. Disinfect wounds
  • C. Put on surgical apron
  • D. Apply moisturizer to hands
  • E. Surgical scrub
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Answer Key:  E 

Q13. When using an autoclave, how does one know that sterilization has been achieved?

  • A. Dry autoclave wraps
  • B. Color change on indicator strip
  • C. Steam when opening up the autoclave
  • D. Shiny instruments
  • E. Bacterial spores on culture test
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Answer Key:  B 

Q14. To which of the following pathogen groups would Candida belong?

  • A. Bacteria
  • B. Fungi
  • C. Protozoa
  • D. Viruses
  • E. None of the above
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Answer Key:  B

Q15. In the chain of infection, which link would an elderly patient with poor nutrition fall under?

  • A. Reservoir
  • B. Portal of exit from reservoir
  • C. Mode of transmission
  • D. Portal of entry to host
  • E. Susceptible host
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Answer Key:   E

Q16. A patient is bleeding from a wound. Transmission of infection could be prevented if which link in the chain of infection is managed first?

  • A. Reservoir
  • B. Portal of exit from reservoir
  • C. Mode of transmission
  • D. Portal of entry to host
  • E. Susceptible host
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Answer Key: D   

Q17. Which sterilization method is most appropriate for a fiber-optic endoscope?

  • A. Steam sterilization
  • B. Gas sterilization
  • C. Dry heat sterilization
  • D. Chemical sterilization
  • E. All of the above would be appropriate.
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Answer Key:  D 

Q18. Which of the following instruments can be used to set up a sterile field?

  • A. Dry transfer forceps
  • B. Wet transfer forceps
  • C. Sponge forceps
  • D. Scalpel
  • E. Towel clamp
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Answer Key:  A 

Q19. The main objective of medical asepsis is to

  • A. maintain standard precautions.
  • B. use steam sterilization to eliminate spores.
  • C. reduce the number of microorganisms.
  • D. isolate pathogens.
  • E. facilitate transmission to susceptible hosts.
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Answer Key:  C 

Q20. Which liquid should be used for autoclaving?

  • A. Distilled water
  • B. Tap water
  • C. Alcohol
  • D. Bleach
  • E. Soapy liquid
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Answer Key:  A 

Q21. The normal speed for an EKG machine is

  • (A) 5 mm/second
  • (B) 25 mm/second
  • (C) 25 mm/minute
  • (D) 50 mm/second
  • (E) 50 mm/minute
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Answer Key:  B 

Q22. To take vital signs on an infant, the medical assistant should

  • (A) have the parent place the child on the exam table
  • (B) ask the parent to leave the room
  • (C) take the pulse using the radial artery and place your hand on the child’s chest to feel the respiration
  • (D) use the stethoscope to listen to the heart and lungs while the parent holds the child
  • (E) ask the parent to take the vital signs and record them in the chart
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Answer Key:  D 

Q23. If a patient has orthopnea, the medical assistant should position them on the exam table in the

  • (A) lithotomy position
  • (B) Sims’s position
  • (C) Trendelenburg position
  • (D) Fowler’s position
  • (E) supine position
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Answer Key:  D 

Q24. The Snellen test measures

  • (A) visual acuity
  • (B) bone conduction
  • (C) color vision
  • (D) near vision
  • (E) nerve conduction
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Answer Key:  A 

Q25. In which section of the chart would information about the patient’s smoking habits and employment be documented?

  • (A) Review of systems
  • (B) Family history
  • (C) Social history
  • (D) Miscellaneous
  • (E) Plan of care
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Answer Key:  C 

Q26. It is appropriate to check the carotid pulse if

  • (A) the patient is uncooperative
  • (B) the patient has a cast on the left arm
  • (C) the patient has fainted
  • (D) the patient refuses to have a rectal temperature taken
  • (E) the patient has just drunk a cold beverage
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Answer Key:  C 

Q27. Screening for osteoporosis would include

  • (A) plotting the weight and height graph of all children until age 18
  • (B) calculating the BMI for all patients
  • (C) carefully measuring the height of older adult patients
  • (D) using a tape measure to measure the uterine fundus in a pregnant patient
  • (E) asking all patients about their sleep habits
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Answer Key:   C

Q28. Which of the following would the medical assistant hand to the physician if she wanted to check the pupils of the eye?

  • (A) Otoscope
  • (B) Tuning fork
  • (C) Speculum
  • (D) Ophthalmoscope
  • (E) Snellen test
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Answer Key:  D 

Q29. The agency that sets standards for the disposal of infectious waste is

  • (A) CDC
  • (B) DEA
  • (C) OSHA
  • (D) CBC
  • (E) FBI
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Answer Key:   C

Q30. All of the following are artifacts in an EKG tracing except:

  • (A) AC interference
  • (B) DC interference
  • (C) interrupted baseline
  • (D) somatic tremor
  • (E) wandering baseline
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Answer Key:  B 

Q31. An instrument that would be used to examine the eyes is a(n)

  • (A) audiometer
  • (B) ophthalmoscope
  • (C) otoscope
  • (D) Ishihara chart
  • (E) Snellen chart
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Answer Key: B   

Q32. Which of the following is NOT an example of proper body mechanics?

  • (A) Avoid lifting items over your head.
  • (B) Bend at the knees and keep your back straight when lifting objects.
  • (C) Instruct the patient to put both arms around your neck for stability as you help the patient to stand.
  • (D) Instruct the patient to assist as much as possible and use a gait belt as you help the patient to stand.
  • (E) Stand on the patient’s stronger side when assisting in ambulation.
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Answer Key:  C 

Q33. Which of the following sequences represents the waveforms of the EKG in the correct order?

  • (A) A,B,C,D,E
  • (B) P,Q,R,S,T
  • (C) P,T,Q,R,S
  • (D) Q,R,S,T,P
  • (E) R,S,T,P,Q
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Answer Key:  B 

Q34. The aseptic process that is aimed at removing all microorganisms, including spores, is called

  • (A) sanitization
  • (B) sterilization
  • (C) disinfection
  • (D) hand washing
  • (E) gloving
View Correct Answer
Answer Key:   B

Q35. A patient has developed antibodies to varicella (chickenpox). What part of the chain of infection has been broken in this case that would provide protection from disease?

  • (A) Infectious agent
  • (B) Portal of entry
  • (C) Portal of exit
  • (D) Susceptible host
  • (E) Reservoir
View Correct Answer
Answer Key:   D

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