Medical Assistant Pathology Practice Test with Common Diseases 2023: Try our free Medical Assistant exams (like CMA, RMA, CCMA, NCMA, CMAC) Pathology review question answer. You can also download it in PDF format for any Medical Assistant exams.
Common Diseases and Pathology outlined the body’s anatomy and physiology and discussed the body’s various systems. This Pathology Practice Test covers some common diseases and pathology of the body’s systems.
Medical Assistant Pathology Practice Test
Q1. A pregnant woman in the third trimester presents with swelling of the legs and headaches. Her blood pressure is elevated and urinalysis showed 4+ protein. These findings are most consistent with which of the following conditions?
- A. Miscarriage
- B. Abruptio placentae
- C. Endometriosis
- D. Preeclampsia
- E. Ectopic pregnancy
Q2. The pediatrician tells the parents that their child has a greenstick fracture. In layman’s terms, what is a greenstick fracture?
- A. A break that can be seen with a bone scan but not an ordinary x-ray
- B. A break in which the bone is crushed
- C. A break that results in the broken edges of the bone piercing and/or tearing the skin
- D. Any break in the bone
- E. A partial break that results in one side of the broken bone bending
- A. is the thickening of bone due to excessive calcitonin production.
- B. may be prevented by swimming regularly.
- C. affects women, men, and children equally.
- D. is treated primarily through administration of testosterone.
- E. is a condition in which bone resorption exceeds bone deposition.
Q4. A young boy was bitten by a wild dog and contracted rabies. He subsequently suffered from fever, headache, photophobia, and seizures. An MRI showed inflammation of the brain. He is suffering from
- A. encephalitis.
- B. cerebral palsy.
- C. poliomyelitis.
- D. cerebral palsy.
- E. Bell’s palsy.
Q5. Which of the following conditions is characterized by a shuffling gait, tremors, pill-rolling, and muscular rigidity?
- A. Parkinson’s disease
- B. Cerebral palsy
- C. Hydrocephalus
- D. Epilepsy
- E. Alzheimer’s disease
Q6. Which of the following conditions is a neural tube defect?
- A. Osteomyelitis
- B. Poliomyelitis
- C. Spina bifida
- D. Cleft palate
- E. Cerebral palsy
Q7. Which of the following dermatologic conditions is caused by a bacterial infection?
- A. Eczema
- B. Herpes zoster
- C. Pediculosis
- D. Impetigo
- E. Tinea pedis
Q8. Pelvic inflammatory disease is managed aggressively because long-term effects can include
- A. Preterm labor
- B. Renal failure
- C. Infertility
- D. Transmission to the fetus
- E. Toxic shock syndrome
Q9. A 21-year-old female is infected with HPV (human papilloma virus) following unprotected sexual intercourse. She is now at higher risk of developing which of the following cancers?
- A. Breast
- B. Ovarian
- C. Endometrial
- D. Vulvar
- E. Cervical
Q10. A 54-year-old male was recently diagnosed with osteoarthritis. Which of the following symptoms is he most likely experiencing?
- A. Redness of the joints
- B. Hypermobility of joints
- C. Contractures
- D. Joint pain
- E. Headaches
Q11. Which disease is characterized by thick, silvery, scaly, erythematous plaques surrounded by normal skin?
- A. Acne vulgaris
- B. Lupus erythematosus
- C. Psoriasis
- D. Pityriasis rosea
- E. Vitiligo
Q12. A 50-year-old male recently underwent a liver transplant and is taking immunosuppressive drugs. He now has pain and vesicular eruptions on the trunk that follow one nerve line. He reports that he had chickenpox as a child. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Erysipelas
- B. Poliomyelitis
- C. Warts
- D. Herpes zoster
- E. Psoriasis
Q13. An 11-year-old male is newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Before treatment he most likely experienced
- A. recurrent infections, fatigue, and paresthesias.
- B. polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, and weight loss.
- C. abdominal pain; sweet, fruity breath; and Kussmaul breathing.
- D. weakness, vomiting, hypotension, and mental confusion.
- E. numbness and blurred vision.
Q14. Congenital hypothyroidism that is not managed is a serious concern because of the risk for
- A. tetanus.
- B. respiratory distress.
- C. seizures.
- D. mental retardation.
- E. heart disease.
Q15. Graves’ disease is an autoimmune disease in which there is excess _________ hormone secretion.
- A. growth
- B. antidiuretic
- C. parathyroid
- D. cortisol
- E. thyroid
Q16. An autoimmune disease that blocks the acetylcholine receptors of the sarcolemma, causing extreme muscle weakness, is
- A. infectious mononucleosis.
- B. myasthenia gravis.
- C. muscular dystrophy.
- D. tetanus.
- E. multiple sclerosis.
Q17. Which of the following viruses causes infectious mononucleosis?
- A. Human papilloma virus
- B. Human immunodeficiency virus
- C. Influenza virus
- D. Herpes simplex virus
- E. Epstein-Barr virus
Q18. Which of the following STDs is viral?
- A. Gonorrhea
- B. Chlamydia
- C. Syphilis
- D. Genital herpes
Q19. Which of the following disorders is associated with upper gastrointestinal bleeding?
- A. Diverticulosis
- B. Demorrhoids
- C. Esophageal varices
- D. Colon cancer
- E. Crohn’s disease
Q20. All of the following could result in a mechanical bowel obstruction EXCEPT
- A. volvulus.
- B. intussusception.
- C. adhesions.
- D. cirrhosis.
- E. impacted feces.
Q21. The cardinal sign of pyloric stenosis is
- A. constipation.
- B. watery diarrhea.
- C. projectile vomiting.
- D. heartburn.
- E. bloody stools.
Q22. Infection with Helicobacter pylori is associated with which of the following?
- A. Appendicitis
- B. Crohn’s disease
- C. Hemorrhoids
- D. Peptic ulcer disease
- E. Cirrhosis
Q23. A patient presents with McBurney’s point tenderness, a high leukocyte count, fever, and vomiting. What does this patient most likely have?
- A. Peptic ulcer disease
- B. Sickle cell anemia
- C. Chlamydia
- D. Appendicitis
- E. Rheumatic heart disease
Q24. A 28-year-old female presents with severe chest pain and shortness of breath. She is diagnosed with pulmonary embolism, which most likely originated from the
- A. left ventricle.
- B. systemic arteries.
- C. deep veins of the leg.
- D. superficial veins of the arm.
- E. brain.
Q25. The most common cause of pulmonary edema is
- A. right heart failure.
- B. left heart failure.
- C. asthma.
- D. lung cancer.
- E. pneumonia.
Q26. A 53-year-old male with a 20-year history of smoking is diagnosed with emphysema. He is having difficulty breathing because of
- A. excessive mucus production.
- B. destruction of alveolar septa.
- C. infection and inflammation.
- D. airway edema.
- E. all of the above.
Q27. A 30-year-old male prison inmate contracted tuberculosis during an outbreak. He may transmit the disease to others through
- A. skin contact.
- B. fecal-oral transmission.
- C. respiratory droplets.
- D. blood transfusions.
- E. sexual activity.
Q28. A 25-year-old female is diagnosed with urinary tract obstruction. She has not urinated for 36 hours. A renal ultrasound shows
- A. glomerulonephritis.
- B. hydronephrosis.
- C. pyelonephritis.
- D. cystitis.
- E. polycystic kidney disease.
Q29. A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with chronic renal failure. Which of the following lab values would be most consistent with this diagnosis?
- A. Elevated plasma creatinine level
- B. Decreased plasma potassium level
- C. Metabolic alkalosis
- D. Increased uric acid
- E. Increased ferritin
Q30. Hearing loss caused by stiffening of the bones of the middle ear is called
- A. strabismus.
- B. tinnitus.
- C. otitis media.
- D. Ménière’s disease.
- E. otosclerosis.
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