ATI TEAS Reading Practice Test 2022 (39 Questions Answers)

ATI TEAS Reading Practice Test Free. Assessment Technologies Institute, LLC, administered the Test of Essential Academic Skills (TEAS). We provide ATI TEAS Reading Practice Test 2022 questions answers. You can also download a printable PDF copy of the test.  The TEAS Reading content area tests your ability to perform these tasks.

On the real test of the 44 Reading questions, 39 will be scored and 5 will be unscored. You won’t know which questions are unscored, so do your best on every question.

ATI TEAS Reading Practice Test 2022

Test Name ATI TEAS Practice Test 2022
Subject Reading
Total Questions 39 MCQs
Test type Sample questions answers
Topics
  1. Key Ideas and Details
  2. Craft & Structure
  3. Integration of Knowledge & Ideas
Time Limit 55 minutes
Negative marking no penalty for wrong answers

Directions: Read and/or review the question, passage, or figure carefully, and choose the best answer.

The table below shows categories for systolic blood pressure.

A patient’s blood pressure reading is shown above.

Q1. What category does the patient fall in?

  • A. normal
  • B. prehypertension
  • C. hypertension stage 1
  • D. hypertension stage 2
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: C  

 The next three questions are based on the following table. The Dewey Decimal System is a library classification system.

The Dewey Decimal Classes
000 Computer science, information, and general works
100 Philosophy and psychology
200 Religion
300 Social sciences
400 Languages
500 Science and mathematics
600 Technical and applied science
700 Arts and recreation
800 Literature
900 History, geography, and biography

Q2. Teddy has been assigned to write a history paper about the United States during the Cold War. His teacher advised him to read some of the works of Noam Chomsky, an American linguist, philosopher, social scientist, cognitive scientist, historian, social critic, and political activist. Teddy was not sure where to begin, so he consulted the Dewey Decimal classes. While not all inclusive, what choice of three classes would likely be the most useful?

  • A. 100, 300, 700
  • B. 100, 300, 800
  • C. 100, 400, 900
  • D. 200, 300, 900
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: C  

Q3. While researching Chomsky’s many theories and arguments, Teddy became interested in post-World War II anarchism, a social science theory asserting the political philosophy that rejects a compulsory government. He wants to find the most appropriate works related to the subject. Which section of the library is the most likely to contain the relevant books?

  • A. 000
  • B. 200
  • C. 300
  • D. 900
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: C  

Q4. Also during his research, Teddy discovered information about Chomsky’s Jewish heritage, and he wants to research traditional Judaism as practiced in the early twentieth century. Which section of the library would most likely contain the most relevant information?

  • A. 100
  • B. 200
  • C. 300
  • D. 900
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: B  

The next question is based on this passage.

The social and political discourse of America continues to be permeated with idealism. An idealistic viewpoint asserts that the ideals of freedom, equality, justice, and human dignity are the truths that Americans must continue to aspire to. Idealists argue that truth is what should be, not necessarily what is. In general, they work to improve things and to make them as close to ideal as possible.

Q5. Which of the following best captures the author’s purpose?

  • A. to advocate for freedom, equality, justice, and human rights
  • B. to explain what an idealist believes in
  • C. to explain what’s wrong with social and political discourse in America
  • D. to persuade readers to believe in certain truths
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: B  

The next question is based on this passage.

Samuel teaches at a high school in one of the biggest cities in the United States. His students come from diverse family backgrounds. Samuel observes that the best students in his class are from homes where parental supervision is minimal. The parents of the bottom five students are the most involved, by a large margin. There are 24 students in his class. Samuel is going to write an academic paper based on his students’ family backgrounds and academic performance. The paper will argue that parental involvement is not an important factor in academic success.

Q6. Which of the following statements best describes Samuel’s sample size?

  • A. The sample is biased because he has firsthand experience and personal knowledge of its participants.
  • B. The sample contains too few members to make meaningful claims applicable to a large group.
  • C. The sample contains too many members to understand the context and specifics of any given student’s situation.
  • D. The sample is unbiased and appropriately sized to draw conclusions on the role of parental supervision in education.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: B  

The next four questions are based on this passage.

Skin coloration and markings have an important role to play in the world of snakes. Those intricate diamonds, stripes, and swirls help the animals hide from predators, but perhaps most importantly (for us humans, anyway), the markings can also indicate whether the snake is venomous. While it might seem counterintuitive for a venomous snake to stand out in bright red or blue, that fancy costume tells any nearby predator that approaching him would be a bad idea.

If you see a flashy-looking snake in the woods, though, those markings don’t necessarily mean it’s venomous: some snakes have found a way to ward off predators without the actual venom. The scarlet kingsnake, for example, has very similar markings to the venomous coral snake with whom it frequently shares a habitat. However, the kingsnake is actually nonvenomous; it’s merely pretending to be dangerous to eat. A predatory hawk or eagle, usually hunting from high in the sky, can’t tell the difference between the two species, and so the kingsnake gets passed over and lives another day.

Q7. What is the author’s primary purpose in writing this essay?

  • A. To explain how the markings on a snake are related to whether it’s venomous.
  • B. To teach readers the difference between coral snakes and kingsnakes.
  • C. To illustrate why snakes are dangerous.
  • D. To demonstrate how animals survive in difficult environments.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: A  

Q8. What can the reader conclude from the passage above?

  • A. The kingsnake is dangerous to humans.
  • B. The coral snake and the kingsnake are both hunted by the same predators.
  • C. It’s safe to handle snakes in the woods because you can easily tell whether they’re poisonous.
  • D. The kingsnake changes its markings when hawks or eagles are close by
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: B  

Q9. What is the best summary of this passage?

  • A. Humans can use coloration and markings on snakes to determine whether they’re venomous.
  • B. Animals often use coloration to hide from predators.
  • C. The scarlet kingsnake and the coral snake have nearly identical markings.
  • D. Venomous snakes often have bright markings, although nonvenomous snakes can also mimic those colors.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: D  

Q10. Which of the following is the purpose of this passage?

  • A. to inform
  • B. to entertain
  • C. to describe
  • D. to persuade
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: A  

The next question is based on the following passage.

Annabelle Rice started having trouble sleeping. Her biological clock was suddenly amiss and she began to lead a nocturnal schedule. She thought her insomnia was due to spending nights writing a horror story, but then she realized that even the idea of going outside into the bright world scared her to bits. She concluded she was now suffering from heliophobia.

Q11. Which of the following most accurately describes the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence above?

  • A. Fear of dreams
  • B. Fear of sunlight
  • C. Fear of strangers
  • D. Anxiety spectrum disorder
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: B  

Read the following passage. Then answer the question.

Many kinds of sharks are on endangered lists today. This is chiefly due to human activities. Fishing interests hunt sharks for their monetary value and cultural importance. Shark fins are coveted as an ingredient in traditional Chinese medicine. Shark fin soup is valued as a delicacy throughout Asia. Shark finning—the practice of catching sharks, cutting off their fins, and discarding the carcass—is responsible for killing 100 million sharks each year.

Q12. Which of the following would be the best addition to this passage?

  • A. Fishermen seeking tuna sometimes catch other, non-targeted species in their nets.
  • B. Growing demand for shark fins in Hong Kong and elsewhere makes them as valuable as the rest of the fish.
  • C. Overfishing is an issue that environmental groups are increasingly focused on worldwide.
  • D. Mother sharks bear one litter of about eight to twelve babies every other year.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: B  

Read the following set of directions. Then answer the question.

1. Start with the words USERS KID.
2. Reverse the order of the words.
3. Insert the letter N after the first vowel in the first word and before the first vowel in the second word.
4. Move the fifth letter in the second word to follow the first vowel in that word.

Q13. Which words have you formed?

  • A. KIN RUSES
  • B. DINK NURSES
  • C. INK RUSES
  • D. KIND NURSES
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: D  

The next two questions are based on this passage.

How to Plant Potatoes
Before Planting

Plant potatoes no later than 2 weeks after the last spring freeze.
Cut potatoes into pieces 1 to 2 days before planting.
Loosen soil using a tiller or hand trowel. Mix fertilizer or compost into the loosened soil.

Planting
Dig a 4-inch-deep trench and place potatoes 1 foot apart.
Cover potatoes loosely with soil.

After Planting
Water immediately after planting, and then regularly afterward to keep the soil moist.
After 6 weeks, mound soil around the base of the plant to ensure the roots stay covered.

Q14. Which of the following is the first step to take after planting potatoes?

  • A. Mound soil around the base of the plant.
  • B. Water immediately.
  • C. Mix fertilizer or compost into the loosened soil.
  • D. Place potatoes 1 foot apart.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: B  

Q15. Which of the following should be done after the soil has been loosened with a tiller or trowel?

  • A. Mix fertilizer or compost into the loosened soil.
  • B. Dig a 4-inch-deep trench.
  • C. Cut potatoes into pieces.
  • D. Mound soil around the base of the plant.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: A  

Read the following label of nutrition facts. Then answer the two questions that follow.

Q16. The doctor has requested that an underweight patient have a high-calorie, low-fat diet. Is this cereal appropriate if it accounts for one-third of his diet?

  • A. No, because the cereal is too high in both calories and fat.
  • B. No, because the cereal is appropriately low in fat but not high enough in calories.
  • C. Yes, because the cereal is appropriately low in fat and appropriately high in calories.
  • D. Yes, because the cereal is appropriately high in fat and appropriately low in calories.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: B  

Q17. The patient has diabetes, and his doctor recommends that he eat fewer than 200 g of carbohydrate each day. Is this cereal a good choice for the patient who eats three meals a day?

  • A. Yes, because the 58 g of carbohydrate represents less than one-third of a 200-g total.
  • B. Yes, because the 58 g of carbohydrate represents less than the 200-g total for the day.
  • C. No, because the 58 g of carbohydrate represents more than one-third of a 200-g total.
  • D. No, because the 58 g of carbohydrate represents far too few carbohydrates per day for a person with diabetes.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: A  

The next four questions are based on the following passage.

Smoking is Terrible

Smoking tobacco products is terribly destructive. A single cigarette contains over 4,000 chemicals, including 43 known carcinogens and 400 deadly toxins. Some of the most dangerous ingredients include tar, carbon monoxide, formaldehyde, ammonia, arsenic, and DDT. Smoking can cause numerous types of cancer including throat, mouth, nasal cavity, esophagus, stomach, pancreas, kidney, bladder, and cervical.

Cigarettes contain a drug called nicotine, one of the most addictive substances known to man. Addiction is defined as a compulsion to seek the substance despite negative consequences. According to the National Institute of Drug Abuse, nearly 35 million smokers expressed a desire to quit smoking in 2015; however, more than 85 percent of those addicts will not achieve their goal. Almost all smokers regret picking up that first cigarette. You would be wise to learn from their mistake if you have not yet started smoking.

According to the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, 16 million people in the United States presently suffer from a smoking-related condition and nearly nine million suffer from a serious smoking-related illness. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), tobacco products cause nearly six million deaths per year. This number is projected to rise to over eight million deaths by 2030. Smokers, on average, die ten years earlier than their nonsmoking peers.

In the United States, local, state, and federal governments typically tax tobacco products, which leads to high prices. Nicotine addicts sometimes pay more for a pack of cigarettes than for a few gallons of gas. Additionally, smokers tend to stink. The smell of smoke is all-consuming and creates a pervasive nastiness. Smokers also risk staining their teeth and fingers with yellow residue from the tar.

Smoking is deadly, expensive, and socially unappealing. Clearly, smoking is not worth the risks.

Q18. Which of the following best describes the passage?

  • A. Narrative
  • B. Persuasive
  • C. Expository
  • D. Technical
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: B  

Q19. Which of the following statements most accurately summarizes the passage?

  • A. Tobacco is less healthy than many alternatives.
  • B. Tobacco is deadly, expensive, and socially unappealing, and smokers would be much better off kicking the addiction.
  • C. In the United States, local, state, and federal governments typically tax tobacco products, which leads to high prices.
  • D. Tobacco products shorten smokers’ lives by ten years and kill more than six million people per year.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: B  

Q20. The author would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements?

  • A. Smokers should only quit cold turkey and avoid all nicotine cessation devices.
  • B. Other substances are more addictive than tobacco.
  • C. Smokers should quit for whatever reason that gets them to stop smoking.
  • D. People who want to continue smoking should advocate for a reduction in tobacco product taxes.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: C  

Q21. Which of the following represents an opinion statement on the part of the author?

  • A. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), tobacco products cause nearly six million deaths per year.
  • B. Nicotine addicts sometimes pay more for a pack of cigarettes than a few gallons of gas.
  • C. They also risk staining their teeth and fingers with yellow residue from the tar.
  • D. Additionally, smokers tend to stink. The smell of smoke is all-consuming and creates a pervasive nastiness.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: D  

Q22. Which of the following is located due north of the Fire Circle?

  • A. Old Oak Tree
  • B. Scout Camp
  • C. Fishing Pond
  • D. Backcountry Camping
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: B  

Q23. If a camper followed the trail from the Fishing Pond to the Scout Camp and passed by the Fire Circle, which of the following would she also have to pass by?

  • A. Old Oak Tree
  • B. Ranger Station
  • C. Backcountry Camping
  • D. Pier
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: A  

Read the passage. Then answer the question.

Law enforcement officials say that texting while driving is a growing problem among teenagers in the United States. According to a poll conducted by AAA, 35% of teen drivers admitted to texting and driving even though they are aware of the dangers. Texting while driving causes one out of every four auto accidents in the United States each year. Most of these accidents are undoubtedly the fault of teenage girls, who seem careless and rarely pay attention while driving. It is important for young drivers in particular to set their phones aside while driving. According to AAA, about eleven teens lose their lives every day because they were texting while driving.

Q24. Which of the following sentences from the passage is the writer’s opinion?

  • (A) Law enforcement officials say that texting while driving is a growing problem among teenagers in the United States.
  • (B) Most of these accidents are undoubtedly the fault of teenage girls, who seem careless and rarely pay attention while driving.
  • (C) According to a poll conducted by AAA, 35% of teen drivers admitted to texting and driving even though they are aware of the
    dangers.
  • (D) According to AAA, about eleven teens lose their lives every day because they were texting while driving.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: B  

Q25. Which of the following would be a primary source for an article on the Battle of Gettysburg?

  • A. a letter written by a local farmer who witnessed the battle
  • B. a documentary about the battle produced by a local TV station
  • C. a novelization of the battle written by the great-grandson of a Union soldier
  • D. a history textbook for a college-level course in American history
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: A 

The next five questions are based on this passage .

It had been a long morning for Julia. She’d been woken up early by the sound of lawn mowers outside her window, and despite her best efforts, had been unable to get back to sleep. So, she’d reluctantly got out of bed, showered, and prepared her morning cup of coffee. At least, she tried to anyway. In the kitchen she’d discovered she was out of regular coffee and had to settle for a decaffeinated cup instead.

Once on the road, her caffeine-free mug of coffee didn’t help make traffic less annoying. In fact, it seemed to Julia like the other drivers were sluggish and surly as well—it took her an extra fifteen minutes to get to work. And when she arrived, all the parking spots were full.

By the time she’d finally found a spot in the overflow lot, she was thirty minutes late for work. She’d hoped her boss would be too busy to notice, but he’d already put a pile of paperwork on her desk with a note that simply said “Rewrite.” She wondered if she should point out to her boss that she hadn’t been the one to write the reports in the first place, but decided against it.

When the fire alarm went off an hour later, Julia decided she’d had enough. She grabbed her purse and headed outside with her coworkers. While everyone else stood around waiting for the alarm to quiet, Julia determinedly walked to her car, fired up the engine, and set a course for home.

Q26. Which of the following is the most likely reason Julia did not return to work after the alarm?

  • A. She was embarrassed that should could not finish the work her boss asked for.
  • B. She was tired and wanted to go home.
  • C. She got stuck in traffic and could not get back to her office.
  • D. Her boss gave her the afternoon off.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: B 

Q27. Which of the following statements based on the passage should be considered an opinion?

  • A. Julia’s boss asked her to do work to help one of her coworkers.
  • B. Julia was late to work because of traffic.
  • C. It was irresponsible for Julia to leave work early.
  • D. Julia was tired because she’d been woken up early.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: C 

Q28. Which of the following lists Julia’s actions in the correct sequence?

  • A. Julia woke up early and found she didn’t have any regular coffee. When she got to work, her boss had a lot for her to do. When the fire alarm went off, she decided to go home.
  • B. Julia got to work and decided she was too tired to do the work her boss asked for, so she went home to get a cup of coffee.
  • C. Julia woke up when the fire alarm went off and couldn’t get back to sleep. She then got stuck in traffic and arrived at work thirty minutes late.
  • D. Julia was woken up early by a lawnmower and then got stuck in traffic on the way to her office. Once there, she found that the office was out of coffee and she had a lot of work to do. When the fire alarm went off, she decided to go home.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: A 

Q29. The final sentence of the passage states that Julia set a course for home. Which of the following is the most accurate interpretation of this sentence?

  • A. Julia cannot go directly home.
  • B. Julia is planning to drive home.
  • C. Julia wants to go home but will go back to work.
  • D. Julia is worried the fire at her office will spread to her home.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: B 

Q30. Which of the following conclusions is best supported by the passage?

  • A. Julia will find a job closer to her home.
  • B. Julia will lose her job.
  • C. Julia will feel guilty and return to work.
  • D. Julia will drive home and go to sleep.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: D 

The next five questions are based on the chart following a brief introduction to the topic.

The American Civil War was fought from 1861 to 1865. It is the only civil war in American history. While the South’s secession was the initiating event of the war, the conflict grew out of several issues like slavery and differing interpretations of individual state rights. General Robert E.

Lee led the Confederate Army for the South for the duration of the conflict (although other generals held command positions over individual battles, as you will see below). The North employed a variety of lead generals, but Ulysses S. Grant finished the war as the victorious general. There were more American casualties in the Civil War than any other military conflict in American history.

Q31. In which of the following battles were there more Confederate casualties than Union casualties?

  • A. Cold Harbor
  • B. Chancellorsville
  • C. Atlanta
  • D. Shiloh
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: C 

Q32. Which one of the following battles occurred first?

  • A. Cold Harbor
  • B. Chancellorsville
  • C. Atlanta
  • D. Shiloh
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: D 

Q33. Robert E. Lee did not lead the Confederate forces in which one of the following battles?

  • A. Atlanta
  • B. Chancellorsville
  • C. Cold Harbor
  • D. Gettysburg
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: A 

34. In which of the following battles did the Union casualties exceed the Confederate casualties by the greatest number?

  • A. Cold Harbor
  • B. Chancellorsville
  • C. Atlanta
  • D. Shiloh
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: A 

Q35. The total number of American casualties suffered at the battle of Gettysburg is about double the total number of casualties suffered at which one of the following battles?

  • A. Cold Harbor
  • B. Chancellorsville
  • C. Atlanta
  • D. Shiloh
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: D 

The next two questions are based on the graphic that follows a brief introduction to the topic.

The United States Constitution directs Congress to conduct a census of the population to determine the country’s population and demographic information. The United States Census Bureau carries out the survey. In 1790, then Secretary of State Thomas Jefferson conducted the first census, and the most recent U.S. census was in 2010. The next U.S. census will be the first to be issued primarily through the Internet.

Q36. In which of the following years was the United States population less than it was in 1930?

  • A. 1950
  • B. 1970
  • C. 1910
  • D. 1990
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: C 

Q37. In what year did the population increase the most during a twenty-year interval?

  • A. From 1930 to 1950
  • B. From 1950 to 1970
  • C. From 1970 to 1990
  • D. From 1990 to 2010
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: D 

Read the passage. Then answer the question that follows.

It wasn’t that Marie disliked the new girl at her high school. Lucinda Graham had an easy smile and a humble manner, and she got along well with almost everyone. The problem arose when Lucinda began to outdo Marie at Marie’s traditional specialties. For example, Lucinda joined the softball team and within a week had replaced Marie as the leadoff hitter and shortstop. In the Chess Club, Lucinda forced Marie to resign three times in a row—the first games Marie had ever lost at school! Now there was talk that Lucinda’s science project would be chosen as the school’s lone entry in the statewide Science Fair, the same fair at which Marie had earned top honors last year. Well, the election for class president was coming up in a month. At least Marie, as the popular incumbent, had that to fall back on.

Q38. Which of the following predictions would you make about this story?

  • A. Marie will decide not to run for class president.
  • B. Lucinda will challenge Marie in the election for class president.
  • C. Marie and Lucinda will work together to help someone else become class president.
  • D. Lucinda will boast about her victories over Marie and lose popularity among the students.
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: B 

Read the passage. Then answer the question that follows.

In Ernest Hemingway’s short novel The Old Man and the Sea, an old Cuban fisherman has gone eighty-four days without catching a fish, although he keeps trying day after day. He is mocked by the other fishermen for his failures. The parents of his young apprentice forbid the boy to accompany the old man any longer because he is deemed unlucky. Finally, on the eighty-fifth day, the old man hooks a huge marlin and reels in the fish after an exhausting struggle lasting two days. He lashes the marlin to his boat and heads home. However, sharks swarm his little boat and devour the marlin, leaving only its skeleton. The old man manages to get his boat ashore and staggers off to finally get some sleep. The next day a number of fishermen are amazed to see the marlin’s eighteen-foot skeleton attached to the boat. They realize the old man has made an enormous effort to catch the fish and bring it in. The old man’s young apprentice promises to accompany him on his next outing.

Q39. Which of the following best states the theme of this story?

  • (A) hopelessness of old age
  • (B) difficulty of fishing for marlin
  • (C) youth versus age
  • (D) persistence and courage
View Correct Answer
 Answer Key: D