TEAS Science Practice Test 2024 (44 Questions Answers) by ATI. Try our Assessment Technologies Institute (ATI) Test of Essential Academic Skills (TEAS) TEAS Science Practice Test for free. There are a total of 34 sample Science multiple-choice questions with answer keys. In our ATI TEAS Science Test Prep, we understand how important scoring well on the ATI TEAS 7 exam is for your future.
The following TEAS Science Practice Test question answers will walk you through the important concepts in each of these subjects and also provide you with inside information on test strategies and tactics.
TEAS Science Practice Test 2024
| Test Name | ATI TEAS Practice Test 2024 |
| Subject | Science |
| Total Questions | 34 MCQs |
| Test type | Sample questions answers |
| Topics |
|
| Time Limit | 60 minutes |
| Negative marking | no penalty for wrong answers |
Q1. The secretions from sudoriferous glands mainly serve what function?
- (A) lubricate the skin for elasticity
- (B) cool the body’s temperature
- (C) protect the ear canal
- (D) provide a first line of defense against infection
Q2. Which of the following acts as a vital connection between the endocrine system and the nervous system?
- (A) the thyroid
- (B) the pineal gland
- (C) the pancreas
- (D) the hypothalamus
Q3. The cause of advanced kidney disease in a person is most likely which of the following?
- (A) The bladder has a bacterial infection.
- (B) The nephrons have lost their capacity to filter wastes out of the blood.
- (C) The kidneys have lost their elasticity.
- (D) Renal arteries no longer supply sufficient blood supply to the kidneys
Q4. The humoral response fights infection by doing which of the following?
- (A) producing antibodies
- (B) ingesting microbes
- (C) forming a barrier consisting of various body fluids
- (D) creating “memory cells” that remember a specific infection
Q5. Which of the following helps to make bones very hard?
- (A) red blood cells
- (B) collagen
- (C) calcium
- (D) white blood cells
Q6. Changing disaccharides to monosaccharides involves which of the following processes?
- (A) dehydration
- (B) hydrolysis
- (C) hydration
- (D) condensation
Q7. A scientist analyzed a sample from cells and found it to contain equal amounts of cytosine, guanine, uracil, and adenine. From which part of the cell did the sample come?
- (A) Ribosomes
- (B) Nucleus
- (C) Chromosomes
- (D) Genes
Q8. Which of the following describes the primary function of the respiratory system?
- (A) to create sound and speech
- (B) to take oxygen into the body while removing carbon dioxide
- (C) to transport nutrients to the cells and tissue of the body
- (D) to act as a barrier between the body’s organs and outside influences
Q9. Which of the following is the first step of the scientific method?
- (A) construct a hypothesis
- (B) make observations
- (C) analyze data
- (D) form a question
Q10. The process of organisms with an advantageous trait surviving more often and producing more offspring than organisms without the advantageous trait describes which of the following basic
mechanisms of evolution?
- (A) gene flow
- (B) genetic drift
- (C) mutation
- (D) natural selection
Q11. Oxygen is exchanged between blood and tissues at which of the following areas?
- (A) capillaries
- (B) veins
- (C) ventricles
- (D) arteries
Q12. Which of the following containins a single immature egg cell that is released during ovulation?
- (A) oocytes
- (B) follicles
- (C) ovaries
- (D) fallopian tubes
Q13. Which of the following describes the muscular organ that processes food material into increasingly smaller pieces, mixes it with saliva to create a bolus, and creates a barrier to transport food into the esophagus?
- (A) pharynx
- (B) tongue
- (C) diaphragm
- (D) stomach
Q14. Which of the following chambers of the heart receives blood returning from the lungs during pulmonary circulation?
- (A) left atrium
- (B) right atrium
- (C) left ventricle
- (D) right ventricle
Q15. Which of the following is the lobe in the cerebral cortex primarily responsible for processing and integrating sensory information received from the rest of the body?
- (A) frontal lobe
- (B) occipital lobe
- (C) parietal lobe
- (D) temporal lobe
Q16. ml of olive oil weighs 18.36 g. Will an 8-g chunk of plastic that has a volume of 11 cm³ float in olive oil?
- (A) Yes, because the plastic’s density is greater than that of the oil.
- (B) Yes, because the plastic’s density is less than that of the oil.
- (C) No, because the plastic’s density is 0.73 g/cm³
- (D) No, because the oil’s density is 0.92 g/cm³
Q17. Lemon juice is about 1000 times more acidic than coffee, which has a pH of 5. What is the pH of lemon juice?
- (A) 1.0
- (B) 2.0
- (C) 4.0
- (D) 9.0
Q18. A hospital manager suspects that the pay scale for nurses and the number of complaints that the hospital receives from patients are inversely proportional. The manager is organizing a study to prove her hypothesis. Which of the following would be the dependent variable for the study?
- (A) number of complaints
- (B) number of nurses
- (C) pay scale for nurses
- (D) number of patients
Q19. Students are designing an investigation of waterfleas of the genus Daphnia. They aim to discover how changes in temperature affect the tiny crustaceans’ rate of heartbeats per second. (Waterfleas are nearly transparent and their internal organs are easy to observe in live specimens.) The students plan to expose the waterfleas to temperatures from 5°C to 20°C at 5° intervals. What is the dependent variable in this experiment?
- (A) temperature
- (B) heartbeats/second
- (C) size of the waterfleas
- (D) number of waterfleas
Q20. Which of the following describes the primary function of the pyloric sphincter?
- (A) to regulate the movement of food material from the stomach to the duodenum
- (B) to neutralize stomach acid
- (C) to prevent digested food materials and stomach acid from entering the esophagus
- (D) to begin the process of chemical digestion
Q21. Which of the following is the location of fertilization in the female?
- (A) uterus
- (B) fallopian tube
- (C) endometrium
- (D) ovary
Q22. The pineal gland is located in which of the following areas in the body?
- (A) below the larynx
- (B) above the kidney
- (C) at the center of the brain hemispheres
- (D) at the base of the brain
Q23. Which of the following is a dense, interconnected mass of nerve cells located outside of the central nervous system?
- (A) ganglion
- (B) dendrite
- (C) cranial nerve
- (D) pons
Q24. Which of the following is a true statement about dominance in genetics?
- (A) All genes follow Mendel’s law of dominance.
- (B) A dominant allele will always be expressed.
- (C) When two dominant alleles are present, the resulting phenotype will express both traits.
- (D) There are three or more alleles possible for all genes.
Q25. Two mice are both heterozygous for two traits: white fur (Ww) and short fur (Ss). Their offspring are most likely to have which of the following genotypes for these traits?
- (A) wwss
- (B) WWSS
- (C) WwSs
- (D) WWSs
Q26. Which of the following describes the general function of cytokines in the immune system?
- (A) They communicate between cells to instigate an immune response.
- (B) They inhibit blood clotting during inflammation responses.
- (C) They bind to specific pathogens to increase pathogen mass.
- (D) They transport pathogens trapped in mucus to be destroyed in the stomach.
Q27. Which of the following describes the path through which air moves during inhalation?
- (A) mouth/nose > pharynx > larynx > trachea > bronchi > bronchioles > alveoli
- (B) bronchioles > alveoli > bronchi > larynx > pharynx > lungs
- (C) mouth/nose > bronchi > bronchioles > alveoli > lungs > trachea
- (D) alveoli > bronchioles > lungs > bronchi > trachea > larynx > pharynx > mouth/nose
Q28. Which of the following cell organelles are the site of lipid synthesis?
- (A) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
- (B) ribosome
- (C) rough endoplasmic reticulum
- (D) Golgi apparatus
Q29. Which of the following is NOT a function of progesterone in the female reproductive system?
- (A) expression of secondary sexual characteristics, such as enlarged breasts
- (B) stimulation of milk production in the breasts
- (C) regulation and preparation of the endometrial lining of the uterus for potential pregnancy
- (D) inhibition of contractions of the uterus as the ovum is released
Q30. Which of the following layers of skin acts as an energy reserve by storing adipocytes and releasing them into circulation when energy is needed?
- (A) epidermis
- (B) dermis
- (C) hypodermis
- (D) stratum basale
Q31. Neurotransmitters send chemical messages across the gap between one neuron and another through which of the following structures?
- (A) Schwann cell
- (B) ganglion
- (C) synapse
- (D) axon
Q32. Muscle tissues will often require quick bursts of energy. As a result, which of the following organelles would be most likely to be found in higher than normal amounts in muscle cells?
- (A) ribosomes
- (B) chloroplasts
- (C) vacuoles
- (D) mitochondria
Q33. Which of the following is a type of white blood cell that plays a key role in adaptive immunity by seeking out, attacking, and destroying targeted pathogens?
- (A) memory B cells
- (B) neutrophils
- (C) antibodies
- (D) cytotoxic T cells
Q34. Which of the following are the blood vessels that transport blood to the heart?
- (A) arteries
- (B) capillaries
- (C) venules
- (D) veins
Q35. Which of the following is the primary function of the large intestine?
- (A) absorbing digested material into the blood
- (B) nutrient processing and metabolizing
- (C) absorbing water and compacting material into solid waste
- (D) bile production and storage
Q36. Water is capable of dissolving many substances that organisms need to carry on life functions. Which of the properties of water listed below is responsible for its ability to dissolve important
nutrients like ionic salt compounds?
- (A) adhesion
- (B) cohesion
- (C) high specific heat
- (D) high polarity
Q37. Chromatids divide into identical chromosomes and migrate to opposite ends of the cell in which of the following phases of mitosis?
- (A) metaphase
- (B) anaphase
- (C) prophase
- (D) telophase
Q38. A series of muscle contractions that transports food down the digestive tract in a wave-like fashion describes which of the following?
- (A) digestion
- (B) deglutition
- (C) defecation
- (D) peristalsis
Q39. Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
- (A) nutrient processing
- (B) blood filtration and detoxification
- (C) cholesterol and lipoprotein production
- (D) insulin production and blood sugar regulation
Q40. 2C6 H14 + 19O2 → 12CO2 + 14H2 O
The reaction above is an example of which of the following?
- (A) substitution reaction
- (B) acid-base reaction
- (C) enzyme reaction
- (D) combustion reaction
Q41. The Human Genome Project is a worldwide research project launched in 1990 to map the entire human genome. Although the Project was faced with the monumental challenge of analyzing tons and tons of data, its objective was completed in 2003 and ahead of its deadline by two years. Which of the following inventions likely had the greatest impact on this project?
- (A) The sonogram
- (B) X-ray diffraction
- (C) The microprocessor
- (D) Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
Q42. Which of the following is the best unit to measure the amount of blood in the human body?
- (A) Ounces
- (B) Liters
- (C) Milliliters
- (D) Pounds
Q43. Which of the following systems does not include a transportation system throughout the body?
- (A) Cardiovascular system
- (B) Endocrine system
- (C) Immune system
- (D) Nervous system
Q44. Which of the following correctly identifies a difference between the primary and secondary immune response?
- (A) In the secondary response, macrophages migrate to the lymph nodes to present the foreign microorganism to helped T lymphocytes.
- (B) The humeral immunity that characterizes the primary response is coordinated by T lymphocytes.
- (C) The primary response is quicker and more powerful than the secondary response.
- (D) Suppressor T cells activate in the secondary response to prevent an overactive immune response.
See also:
- ATI TEAS Reading Practice Test (39 MCQs)
- ATI TEAS Reading Practice Test 2 (39 MCQs)
- ATI TEAS Math Practice Test (34 MCQs)
- ATI TEAS Math Practice Test 2 (34 MCQs)
- ATI TEAS Science Practice Test (44 Questions Answers)
- ATI TEAS Science Practice Test 2 (44 MCQs)
- ATI TEAS English and Language Usage Practice Test
- ATI TEAS English and Language Usage Practice Test 2