TEAS Reading Practice Test 2023 (39 Questions Answers). Try our Assessment Technologies Institute (ATI) Test of Essential Academic Skills (TEAS) TEAS Reading Practice Test. There are a total of 37 multiple choice questions with answer keys.
The main idea of a text describes the text’s main topic and the author’s perspective on that topic. On the TEAS, you will be asked to identify the topic and main idea of a text, and you may have to use this information to concisely summarize a passage. To determine the topic, ask yourself what you’re reading about. To determine the main idea, ask yourself how the author feels about that topic.
TEAS Reading Practice Test 2023 (39 Questions Answers)
|Test Name||ATI TEAS Practice Test 2022|
|Total Questions||39 MCQs|
|Test type||Sample questions answers|
|Time Limit||55 minutes|
|Negative marking||no penalty for wrong answers|
The next question is based on this excerpt.
Chapter 2: Amphibians of Texas
A) Tree Frogs
C) True Frogs
A) True Toads
B) Narrowmouth Toads
C) Burrowing Toads
Q1. Based on the pattern in the headings, which of the following is a reasonable heading to insert in the blank spot?
- A. Gray Tree Frog
- B. Tropical Frogs
- C. Newts
- D. Spadefoot Toads
Read the author’s argument. Then answer the question that follows.
The time has come to allow female marathon runners to compete alongside male runners in international competition.
Q2. Which of the following claims does not support the argument above?
- A. According to statistics from around the country, more women are entering weekend 5K and 10K races than ever before.
- B. According to Runner’s World magazine, winning times for women in major marathons worldwide are coming down faster than winning times for men.
- C. A current expert in sports medicine notes that running is a sport that relies on endurance rather than raw strength or speed so it may be better suited for women to compete with men.
- D. In an interview this year, a major international running coach said that with proper training women could soon become competitive
with men in marathons and other distance races.
Read the text. Then answer the question.
THE 1960 PRESIDENTIAL RACE
A Religious Question
The 1960 presidential election pitted former Republican vice-president Richard M. Nixon against Democratic Senator John F. Kennedy. Foreign policy and Cold War competition with the Soviet Union dominated the race. Yet religion also became an issue in the campaign. Kennedy was Roman Catholic, and some of Nixon’s supporters claimed that Kennedy would be loyal to the Pope, not to the U.S. Constitution. Nixon actually instructed his staff not to raise the question in the campaign, but the controversy lingered all the way to November.
First Televised Debate
Kennedy and Nixon participated in the first televised presidential debate. The two candidates sparred on the issues of the day, including the economy, the so-called missile gap with Russia, and the new communist regime that had taken power in Cuba. The debate featured strong points on both sides. Oddly, however, the television cameras seemed to decide the outcome. Those who listened to the debate on the radio thought that Nixon won, while those who watched on TV favored Kennedy. Nixon spoke with authority but sweated profusely under the hot lights of the studio, making him look nervous and desperate. Kennedy’s suave manner before the camera lens won the day. As historian Theodore H. White wrote, “Every American election summons the individual voter to weigh the past against the future.”* Kennedy seemed to represent the future to American voters. In a close election, he won the presidency.
Q3. What is the main purpose of the footnote in this text?
- A. to explain the topic of the second paragraph
- B. to explain why religion became an issue in the 1960 presidential campaign
- C. to provide the source of the quote in the second paragraph
- D. to provide additional information about the 1960 election
The next three questions are based on the graphic following a brief introduction to the topic.
A food chain is a diagram used by biologists to better understand ecosystems. It represents the interrelationships between different plants and animals. The energy is derived from the sun and converted into stored energy by plants through photosynthesis, which travels up the food chain. The energy returns to the ecosystem after the organisms die and decompose back into the Earth. This process is an endless cycle.
In food chains, living organisms are grouped into categories called primary producers and consumers, which come in multiple tiers. For example, secondary consumers feed on primary consumers, while tertiary consumers feed on secondary consumers. Apex predators are the animals at the top of the food chain. They are the highest category consumer in an ecosystem, and apex predators do not have natural predators.
Q4. Which of the following animals eats primary producers according to the food chain diagram?
- A. Cobra
- B. Gazelle
- C. Wild dog
- D. Aardvark
Q5. Which of the following animals has no natural predators according to the food chain diagram?
- A. Vulture
- B. Cobra
- C. Mongoose
- D. Aardvark
Q6. Which of the following is something that the mongoose would eat?
- A. Shrub
- B. Aardvark
- C. Vulture
- D. Mouse
Q7. Which of the following is an example of a secondary source that would be used in a documentary about World War I?
- A. an essay by a historian about the lasting effects of the war
- B. photographs of military equipment used in the war
- C. a recorded interview with a veteran who fought for the US Army
- D. letters written by soldiers to their families
Q8. Victoria won easily and had plenty of time to rest before her next scheduled match. Based on the context, which of the following is the meaning of the word match in the sentence?
- A. a competitive event
- B. a suitable pair
- C. a slender piece of wood used to start a fire
- D. a prospective marriage partner
The next two questions are based on this table .
Q9. A school wants to buy seventy-five textbooks. Based on the pricing chart, which of the following distributors would offer the cheapest price for the books?
- A. Wholesale Books
- B. The Book Barn
- C. Books and More
- D. Quarter Price Books
Q10. A teacher wants to buy an additional twenty-five books for her classroom. If she orders her books separately, which distributor would offer the cheapest price?
- A. Wholesale Books
- B. The Book Barn
- C. Books and More
- D. Quarter Price Books
The next two questions are based on this passage .
The study showed that private tutoring is providing a significant advantage to those students who are able to afford it. Researchers looked at the grades of students who had received free tutoring through the school versus those whose parents had paid for private tutors. The study included 2,500 students in three high schools across four grade levels. The study found that private tutoring corresponded with a rise in grade point average (GPA) of 0.5 compared to students who used the school’s free tutor service and 0.7 compared to students who used no tutoring. After reviewing the study, the board is recommending that the school restructure its free tutor service to provide a more equitable education for all students.
Q11. Which of the following would weaken the author’s argument?
- A. a report stating that the cited study was funded by a company that provides discounted tutoring through schools
- B. a study showing differences in standardized test scores among students at schools in different neighborhoods
- C. a statement signed by local teachers stating that they do not provide preferential treatment in the classroom or when grading
- D. a study showing that GPA does not strongly correlate with success in college
Q12. Which of the following types of arguments is used in the passage?
- A. emotional argument
- B. appeal to authority
- C. specific evidence
- D. rhetorical questioning
The next five questions are based on the following passage.
Christopher Columbus is often credited for discovering America. This is incorrect. First, it is impossible to “discover” something where people already live; however, Christopher Columbus did explore places in the New World that were previously untouched by Europe, so the term “explorer” would be more accurate. Another correction must be made, as well: Christopher Columbus was not the first European explorer to reach the present day Americas! Rather, it was Leif Erikson who first came to the New World and contacted the natives, nearly five hundred years before Christopher Columbus.
Leif Erikson, the son of Erik the Red (a famous Viking outlaw and explorer in his own right), was born in either 970 or 980, depending on which historianyou seek. His own family, though, did not raise Leif, which was a Viking tradition. Instead, one of Erik’s prisoners taught Leif reading and writing, languages, sailing, and weaponry. At age 12, Leif was considered a man and returned to his family. He killed a man during a dispute shortly after his return, and the council banished the Erikson clan to Greenland. In 999, Leif left Greenland and traveled to Norway where he would serve as a guard to King Olaf Tryggvason. It was there that he became a convert to Christianity. Leif later tried to return home with the intention of taking supplies and spreading Christianity to Greenland, however his ship was blown off course and he arrived in a strange new land: present day Newfoundland, Canada.
When he finally returned to his adopted homeland Greenland, Leif consulted with a merchant who had also seen the shores of this previously unknown land we now know as Canada. The son of the legendary Viking explorer then gathered a crew of 35 men and set sail. Leif became the first European to touch foot in the New World as he explored present-day Baffin Island and Labrador, Canada. His crew called the land Vinland since it was plentiful with grapes.
During their time in present-day Newfoundland, Leif’s expedition made contact with the natives whom they referred to as Skraelings (which translates to “wretched ones” in Norse). There are several secondhand accounts of their meetings. Some contemporaries described trade between the peoples. Other accounts describe clashes where the Skraelings defeated the Viking explorers with long spears, while still others claim the Vikings dominated the natives. Regardless of the circumstances, it seems that the Vikings made contact of some kind. This happened around 1000, nearly five hundred years before Columbus famously sailed the ocean blue.
Eventually, in 1003, Leif set sail for home and arrived at Greenland with a ship full of timber. In 1020, seventeen years later, the legendary Viking died. Many believe that Leif Erikson should receive more credit for his contributions in exploring the New World.
Q13. Which of the following best describes how the author generally presents the information?
- A. Chronological order
- B. Comparison-contrast
- C. Cause-effect
- D. Conclusion-premises
Q14. Which of the following is an opinion, rather than historical fact, expressed by the author?
- A. Leif Erikson was definitely the son of Erik the Red; however, historians debate the year of his birth.
- B. Leif Erikson’s crew called the land Vinland since it was plentiful with grapes.
- C. Leif Erikson deserves more credit for his contributions in exploring the New World.
- D. Leif Erikson explored the Americas nearly five hundred years before Christopher Columbus.
Q15. Which of the following most accurately describes the author’s main conclusion?
- A. Leif Erikson is a legendary Viking explorer.
- B. Leif Erikson deserves more credit for exploring America hundreds of years before Columbus.
- C. Spreading Christianity motivated Leif Erikson’s expeditions more than any other factor.
- D. Leif Erikson contacted the natives nearly five hundred years before Columbus.
Q16. Which of the following best describes the author’s intent in the passage?
- A. To entertain
- B. To inform
- C. To alert
- D. To suggest
Q17. Which of the following can be logically inferred from the passage?
- A. The Vikings disliked exploring the New World.
- B. Leif Erikson’s banishment from Iceland led to his exploration of present-day Canada.
- C. Leif Erikson never shared his stories of exploration with the King of Norway.
- D. Historians have difficulty definitively pinpointing events in the Vikings’ history.
The next three questions are based on the following passage.
George Washington emerged out of the American Revolution as an unlikely champion of liberty. On June 14, 1775, the Second Continental Congress created the Continental Army, and John Adams, serving in the Congress, nominated Washington to be its first commander. Washington fought under the British during the French and Indian War, and his experience and prestige proved instrumental to the American war effort. Washington provided invaluable leadership, training, and strategy during the Revolutionary War. He emerged from the war as the embodiment of liberty and freedom from tyranny.
After vanquishing the heavily favored British forces, Washington could have pronounced himself as the autocratic leader of the former colonies without any opposition, but he famously refused and returned to his Mount Vernon plantation. His restraint proved his commitment to the fledgling state’s republicanism. Washington was later unanimously elected as the first American president. But it is Washington’s farewell address that cemented his legacy as a visionary worthy of study.
In 1796, President Washington issued his farewell address by public letter. Washington enlisted his good friend, Alexander Hamilton, in drafting his most famous address. The letter expressed Washington’s faith in the Constitution and rule of law. He encouraged his fellow Americans to put aside partisan differences and establish a national union. Washington warned Americans against meddling in foreign affairs and entering military alliances. Additionally, he stated his opposition to national political parties, which he considered partisan and counterproductive.
Americans would be wise to remember Washington’s farewell, especially during presidential elections when politics hits a fever pitch. They might want to question the political institutions that were not planned by the Founding Fathers, such as the nomination process and political parties themselves.
Q18. Which of the following statements is logically based on the information contained in the passage above?
- A. George Washington’s background as a wealthy landholder directly led to his faith in equality, liberty, and democracy.
- B. George Washington would have opposed America’s involvement in the Second World War.
- C. George Washington would not have been able to write as great a farewell address without the assistance of Alexander Hamilton.
- D. George Washington would probably not approve of modern political parties.
Q19. Which of the following statements is the best description of the author’s purpose in writing this passage about George Washington?
- A. To inform American voters about a Founding Father’s sage advice on a contemporary issue and explain its applicability to modern times
- B. To introduce George Washington to readers as a historical figure worthy of study
- C. To note that George Washington was more than a famous military hero
- D. To convince readers that George Washington is a hero of republicanism and liberty
Q20. In which of the following materials would the author be the most likely to include this passage?
- A. A history textbook
- B. An obituary
- C. A fictional story
- D. A newspaper editorial
The next question is based on this set of directions.
Start with the shapes shown below. Follow the directions.
1) Remove block C.
2) Remove block E.
3) Place block A immediately after block D.
4) Add block C after block A.
Q21. Which of the following shows the order in which the shapes now appear?
The next two questions are based on this passage .
After looking at five houses, Robert and I have decided to buy the one on Forest Road. The first two homes we visited didn’t have the space we need—the first had only one bathroom, and the second did not have a guest bedroom. The third house, on Pine Street, had enough space inside but didn’t have a big enough yard for our three dogs. The fourth house we looked at, on Rice Avenue, was stunning but well above our price range. The last home, on Forest Road, wasn’t in the neighborhood we wanted to live in. However, it had the right amount of space for the right price.
Q22. Which of the following lists the author’s actions in the correct sequence?
- A. The author looked at the house on Forest Road, then at a house with a yard that was too small, then at two houses that were too small, and then finally at a house that was too expensive.
- B. The author looked at the house on Forest Road, then at two houses that were too small, then at a house with a yard that was too small, and then finally at a house that was too expensive.
- C. The author looked at two homes with yards that were too small, then a house with only one bathroom, then a house that was too expensive, and then finally the house on Forest Road.
- D. The author looked at two homes that were too small, then a house with a yard that was too small, then a house that was too expensive, and then finally at the house on Forest Road.
Q23. What is the author’s conclusion about the house on Pine Street?
- A. The house did not have enough bedrooms.
- B. The house did not have a big enough yard.
- C. The house was not in the right neighborhood.
- D. The house was too expensive.
Q24. A voter wants to find out the locations of polling places for an upcoming state election. Which of the following sources should the voter use?
- A. a website run by the state’s board of elections
- B. an endorsement of a candidate from a local newspaper
- C. a blog run by a local radio personality
- D. a book on the history of elections
Use the map to answer the following two questions. Assume you are located at position A on Piermont Drive.
Q25. Which of the following identifies the best way to get to Eubank Boulevard from your location on Piermont Drive?
- A. North on Piermont, right on San Gabriel to Eubank
- B. South on Piermont, right on Presley, right on Westerfeld, left on San Gabriel to Eubank
- C. South on Piermont, west on Comanche to Eubank
- D. South on Piermont, left on San Gabriel to Eubank
Use the graph to answer the following two questions.
Q26. At what time did the patient’s temperature spike?
- A. after 2 PM
- B. after 3 PM
- C. after 4 PM
- D. after 5 PM
Q27. You are examining a case in which a nurse gave a patient acetaminophen at 3:20 PM. According to the graph, how long did the patient’s temperature continue to rise after the acetaminophen was administered?
- A. about 1 hour
- B. about 20 minutes
- C. about 1.5 hours
- D. about 40 minutes
The next two questions are based on this passage.
Mr. Tim Morgan —
This letter is to inform Mr. Morgan that his application for the position of Lead Technician has been received by our Human Resources team. We have been pleased to receive a higher-than-expected number of applications for this position, and we are glad that Mr. Morgan is among the many who find our company an attractive place to build a career. Due to the influx of applications, our Human Resources team will be taking longer than previously stated to review candidates and schedule interviews. Please look for further communication from our Human Resources team in the next two to three weeks.
Head of Human Resources
Q28. Which of the following best describes the purpose of the passage?
- A. to let Mr. Morgan know that he will likely not receive an offer for the job of Lead Technician due to the high number of applicants
- B. to express to Mr. Morgan how pleased the Human Resources team was to receive his application
- C. to offer Mr. Morgan the position of Lead Technician
- D. to inform Mr. Morgan that the review of candidates will take longer than expected
Q29. Which of the following conclusions is well supported by the passage?
- A. The Human Resources team had previously informed Mr. Morgan that he would receive feedback on his application in less than two weeks.
- B. Mr. Morgan is well qualified for the position of Lead Technician and will be offered an interview.
- C. The Human Resources team will have trouble finding a qualified candidate for the position of Lead Technician.
- D. Mr. Morgan will respond to this communication by removing himself from consideration for the position of Lead Technician.
The next three questions are based on this passage.
The greatest changes in sensory, motor and perceptual development happen in the first two years of life. When babies are first born, most of their senses operate in a similar way to those of adults. For example, babies are able to hear before they are born; studies show that babies turn toward the sound of their mothers’ voices just minutes after being born, indicating they recognize the mother’s voice from their time in the womb.
The exception to this rule is vision. A baby’s vision changes significantly in its first year of life; initially, it has a range of vision of only 8 – 12 inches and no depth perception. As a result, infants rely primarily on hearing; vision does not become the dominant sense until around the age of 12 months. Babies also prefer faces to other objects. This preference, along with their limited vision range, means that their sight is initially focused on their caregiver.
Q30. Which of the following is a concise summary of the passage?
- A. Babies have no depth perception until 12 months, which is why they focus only on their caregivers’ faces.
- B. Babies can recognize their mothers’ voices when born, so they initially rely primarily on their sense of hearing.
- C. Babies have senses similar to those of adults except for their sense of sight, which doesn’t fully develop until 12 months.
- D. Babies’ senses go through many changes in the first year of their lives.
Q31. Which of the following senses do babies primarily rely on?
- A. vision
- B. hearing
- C. touch
- D. smell
Q32. Which of the following best describes the mode of the passage?
- A. expository
- B. narrative
- C. persuasive
- D. descriptive
The next 2 questions are based on the timeline of the life of Alexander Graham Bell.
Q33. Which of the following is the event that occurred fourth on the timeline?
- A. Helped found National Geographic Society
- B. Developed a metal detector
- C. Moved to Canada
- D. Started a school for the deaf
Q34. Which one of the following statements is accurate based on the timeline?
- A. Bell did nothing significant after he helped found the National Geographic Society.
- B. Bell started a school for the deaf in Canada.
- C. Bell lived in at least two countries.
- D. Developing a metal detector allowed Bell to meet Helen Keller.
The next two questions are based on this passage.
As you can see from the graph, my babysitting business has been really successful. The year started with a busy couple of months—several snows combined with a large number of requests for Valentine’s Day services boosted our sales quite a bit. The spring months have admittedly been a bit slow, but we’re hoping for a big summer once school gets out. Several clients have already put in requests for our services!
Q35. Based on the information in the graph, how much more did Sam’s Babysitting Service bring in during February than during April?
- A. $200
- B. $900
- C. $1100
- D. $1300
Q36. Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage?
- A. professional
- B. casual
- C. concerned
- D. neutral
Q37. A student wants to find information on the Battle of the Scheldt. According to the index for a
history textbook, where should the student look?
- A. 110
- B. 115
- C. 203
- D. 307
Q38. Which of the following sentences indicates the end of a sequence?
- A. Unfortunately, the stock did not perform as well as we had hoped.
- B. The next day, we were able to find a band we liked that also fit our budget.
- C. Overall, my friends and I found the experience rewarding.
- D. Before we go to the restaurant, let’s look at the menu.
Q39. What is the definition of the word fry as it appears in the following passage?
The mother sun-fish, having now built or provided her “hatchery,” deposits her spawn within the circular inclosure, and mounts guard at the entrance until the fry are hatched out and are sufficiently large to take charge of themselves.
- A. Fish at the stage of development where they are capable of feeding themselves.
- B. Fish eggs that have been fertilized.
- C. A place where larvae is kept out of danger from other predators.
- D. A dish where fish is placed in oil and fried until golden brown
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