Certified Surgical Technologist Practice Test 1 (AST Exam #1)

Certified Surgical Technologist (CST) Practice Test 1 (AST Exam #1) (175 Question Answers) for National Board of Surgical Technology and Surgical Assisting (NBSTSA) and Association of Surgical Technologists CST, CSFA examination preparation guide. The following test questions will help you to prepare for the NBSTSA Practice Test and AST final exam test.

Certified Surgical Technologist Practice Test 1

Test Prep for Certified Surgical Technologist Practice Test
Applicable for NBSTSA or AST
Types of Question Sample Test for preparation
Total Question 175
Question Format Multiple-Choice
Total Time Duration 4 hours
Answers Available Yes
Explanation Yes
Printable PDF Yes
Purpose Surgical Technologist Certifying Exam Study Guide

AST Practice Exam #1

You can participate in the Certified Surgical Technologist Practice Test 1 (AST Exam #1) Quiz Question Answers. In addition, we have also uploaded a printable PDF for AST Practice Exam #1.

Q1. What organs are excised is an ovarian tumor is malignant?
  1. upper arms, neckline and axillary region
  2. bilateral fallopian tubes and ovaries, uterus
  3. patient marks with an “X” and witness verify
  4. never until the patient is discharged from the facility
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2

If a tumor of an ovary is found to be malignant, the surgeon will excise the other ovary, both fallopian tubes, and the uterus to ensure that all cancer cells have been removed.

Q2. The spiral conical structure of the inner ear is the?,

  1. penrose
  2. cochlea
  3. formalin
  4. third
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol: The cochlea is a bony spiral canal in the ear.

Q3. What is the term for a relationship in which two organisms occupy the same area and one organism benefits while the other is unharmed?

  1. mitochondria
  2. parotid
  3. penrose
  4. commensalism
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: A myomectomy is a procedure performed for the removal of fibromyomas or fibroid tumors from the uterine wall.

Q4. Permission for treatment given with full knowledge of the risks is a/an?

  1. informed consent
  2. artificial active
  3. abdominal aortic
  4. clostridium tetani
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol: The patient should be placed in the elevator entering headfirst and exit feet first when being transported to the O.R. on the stretcher.

Q5. Which of the following is a method of high-level disinfection?

  1. name, date of birth, physician
  2. feet first, side rails up
  3. acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest
  4. 2% glutaraldehyde for 20 minutes
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: 2% glutaraldehyde is a type of high-level disinfectant solution; the device must be complete submerse for 20 minutes at room temperature in order to be disinfected

Q6. The mumps may be diagnosed by finding inflammation in which of the following glands?

  1. third
  2. 270-276
  3. hysterectomy
  4. parotid
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: The parotid glands are located inferior and anterior to the ears between the skin and masseter muscle. The parotid glands are attacked by the mumps virus.

Q7. How should the stretcher be oriented when necessary to use an elevator to transport a patient to the or?

  1. acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest
  2. enter head first, exit feet first
  3. name, date of birth, physician
  4. repositioning penetrating towel clip
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol: The patient should be placed in the elevator entering headfirst and exit feet first when being transported to the O.R. on the stretcher.

Q8. Which of the following solutions should be used to prep the donor site for a split-thickness skin graft?

  1. hypertension
  2. compound
  3. anaerobes
  4. chlorhexidine
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: The donor site should be scrubbed with a colorless antiseptic solution, such as chlorhexidine gluconate, to allow the surgeon the ability to evaluate the vascularity of the graft postoperatively.

Q9. What type of procedure would involve the removal of teeth?

  1. bacillus
  2. extractions
  3. systolic
  4. insulin
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol: The removal of a tooth or teeth is an extraction procedure. The resection of the soft tissue and excision of the bone surrounding the tooth prior to the removal is called odontectomy.

Q10. Which of the following is a fenestrated drape?

  1. mitochondria
  2. aperture
  3. systolic
  4. fistula
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol: A fenestrated drape is a drape with an opening such as an aperture drape commonly used to drape eyes.

Q11. Compression of the heart from excessive fluid or blood buildup is called?

  1. fistula
  2. tamponade
  3. daily
  4. flat
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol: Tamponade is the compression of the heart due to a collection of blood or fluid within the pericardium.

Q12. Which is the first part of the small intestine?

  1. cerumen
  2. love
  3. fistula
  4. duodenum
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: The duodenum starts at the pyloric sphincter of the stomach.

Q12. Which suffix means surgical puncture to remove fluid?

  1. -centesis
  2. subdural
  3. kyphosis
  4. fascia
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol: The suffix –centesis means surgical puncture; for example, when combined with arthrocentesis it means surgical puncture of a joint space with a needle to remove fluid

13. Which of the following is an examination of the cervix using a binocular microscope?

  1. atherosclerosis
  2. acute
  3. trauma
  4. colposcopy
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: A binocular microscope is used during an examination of the vagina called a colposcopy; colpo being a root word that means “vagina”.

14. Which ossicle of the middle ear covers the oval window?

  1. 85
  2. daily
  3. stapes
  4. parasitism
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol: The stapes cover the opening between the middle and inner ear known as the oval window.

15. Where should the safety strap be placed on a patient who is in the supine position?

  1. Ampulla of Vater
  2. pharynx and trachea
  3. over the thighs
  4. after each case
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol: The safety belt should be placed approximately 2 in. proximal to the knees.

16. How are rickettsiae transmitted?

  1. cancer procedures
  2. kidney pedicle
  3. arthropod bites
  4. lukewarm water
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol: Most rickettsiae are obligated intracellular parasites. They are usually transmitted by arthropod vectors.

Q17. What is the name of the condition in which a loop of bowel herniates into the Douglas’s cul-de-sac?

  1. insulin
  2. meningioma
  3. epistaxis
  4. enterocele
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: An enterocele is a herniation of Douglas’ cul-de-sac that usually contains loops of the bowel.

Q18. What is the action of antagonist drugs?

  1. upper arms, neckline and axillary region
  2. counteract the action of another drug
  3. repositioning penetrating towel clip
  4. acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol: An antagonist drug neutralizes or impedes the action of another drug; that is, reverses its effects.

Q19. Which surgical procedure is performed to correct an abnormality in which the urethral meatus is situated on the superior aspect of the penis?

  1. epispadias repair
  2. spinal stenosis
  3. incident report
  4. reverse trendelenburg
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol: An epispadias repair is performed to correct the congenital absence of the anterior wall of the urethra and abnormal location of the urethral orifice on the dorsum of the penis.

Q20. What is the term for thread like appendages that provide bacteria with motion?

  1. mitochondria
  2. fistula
  3. insulin
  4. flagella
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: Flagella are fine, thread-like appendages that provide bacteria with motion.

Q21. What is another name for the Kraske position?

  1. trauma
  2. choroid
  3. jackknife
  4. sprilli
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol: Jack-knife is another name for the Kraske position.

Q22. Where is a Baker’s cyst located?

  1. popliteal fossa
  2. surgically clean
  3. 10 minutes
  4. webbed fingers
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol: Baker’s cysts affect the popliteal fossa.

Q23. Where should the first scrub surgical technologist stand when handing towels to the surgeon to square off an incision site?

  1. bone to bone fixation
  2. bony overgrowth of stapes
  3. same side as surgeon
  4. distilled water in lumen
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol: When using four towels for squaring off the incision site, the first scrub surgical technologist should stand on the same side as the surgeon. 

Q24. What surgical position provides optimal visualization of the lower abdomen or pelvis?

  1. trendelenburg
  2. skeletal
  3. subdural
  4. alpha-chymotrypsin
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol: The Trendelenburg position allows the viscera to fall away or toward the head providing better exposure of the operative site when performing a lower abdominal or pelvic procedure.

Q25. Which of the following is used by the surgeon to intermittently remove prostatic tissue fragments during a TURP?

  1. full thickness
  2. gram stain
  3. ellik evacuator
  4. anesthesia provider
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol: The Ellik evacuator is filled with irrigation solution by the first scrub surgical technologist and it is used by the surgeon for the irrigation/evacuation of the bladder to remove prostatic tissue fragments during a TURP.

Q26. Another name for the tympanic membrane is the?

  1. lateral
  2. trephine
  3. eardrum
  4. parasitism
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol: D. The eardrum is also referred to as the tympanic membrane.

Q27. What is the name of the urinary catheter with a small curved tapered tip used on patients with urethral strictures?,

  1. coude
  2. 55-60
  3. acute
  4. laser
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol: A coude is a urinary catheter with a small, curved tapered tip

Q28. Which microbes live without oxygen?

  1. subluxation
  2. compound
  3. anaerobes
  4. third
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol: Bacteria that can live without oxygen are anaerobes.

Q29. Which neurosurgical pathology would a myelogram diagnose?

  1. spinal stenosis
  2. 10 minutes
  3. cottingham punch
  4. cancer procedures.
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol: A myelogram is a diagnostic procedure in which radiopaque dye is injected into the spinal subarachnoid space through a lumbar puncture. The myelogram would diagnose osteophytes.

Q30. A term referring to a waxy secretion in the external ear canal is?

  1. trephine
  2. cerebellum
  3. cerumen
  4. circulator
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol: Cerumen is another term for earwax

Q31. Which of the following dilators are used in the common duct?

  1. teeth
  2. bakes
  3. 55-60
  4. argon
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol: Epistaxis is the medical term for nosebleed.

Q32. In what circumstances would cell saver transfusion be contraindicated?

  1. ultrasonic washer
  2. cottingham punch
  3. cancer procedures
  4. separation anxiety
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol: Cell saver transfusion cannot be used in the presence of cancer cells, gross contamination, or infections.

Q33. Which aneurysm usually develops between the renal and iliac arteries?

  • incident report
  • abdominal aortic
  • Escherichia coli
  • grounding pad
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol: Abdominal aortic aneurysms occur chiefly below the renal arteries and between the renal and iliac arteries.

Q34. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs which of the following is the patient satisfying when he/she trusts the surgical team’s abilities?,

  1. parasitism
  2. pterygium
  3. trauma
  4. safety
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: Safety refers to the patient’s perception that his/her environment is safe and free from danger.

Q35. Which laboratory test determines bacterial identification?

  1. 16 Fr
  2. U drape
  3. gram stain
  4. lukewarm water
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol:  A Gram stain determines the shape and grouping characteristics of bacteria.

Q36. The small intestine attaches to the posterior abdominal wall by the?

  1. systolic
  2. mesentery
  3. pressure
  4. cecum
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol: The mesentery binds the small intestine to the posterior abdominal wall.

Q37. Which of the following incisions is oblique?

  1. fascia
  2. microtia
  3. formalin
  4. kocher
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: The mesentery binds the small intestine to the posterior abdominal wall.

Q38. The bowie dick test is performed?

  1. daily
  2. cecum
  3. incus
  4. vomer
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol: The Bowie-Dick test is only used for pre-vacuum sterilizers to check for air entrapment and is conducted daily.

Q39. When a patient’s blood pressure is 135/81 135 refers to?

  1. systolic
  2. teeth
  3. meningioma
  4. parasitism
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol: Blood pressure is measured in two numbers, systolic over diastolic. The relaxation phase of the heart beat is called the diastolic blood pressure.

Q40. The nasal cavity is divided into two portions by the?

  1. septum
  2. ear
  3. insulin
  4. HCG
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol: The nasal cavity is divided into right and left sides by the nasal septum.

Q41. What is the proper method for preparing a Frazier suction tip for steam sterilization?

  1. bony overgrowth of stapes
  2. distilled water in lumen
  3. repositioning penetrating towel clip
  4. bone to bone fixation
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol: Air trapped in the lumen will prevent steam from contacting the inner surface of the lumen. A residual amount of distilled water should be left inside the lumen which will boil and turn to steam to displace the air.

Q42. The larynx is located between the?

  • Ampulla of Vater
  • Class V: Unclassified
  • patent ductus arteriosus
  • pharynx and trachea
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: The larynx is a small passageway between the pharynx and the trachea.

Q43. The primary function of the gallbladder is to?

  1. store bile
  2. grounding pad
  3. U drape
  4. kitner (peanut)
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol: The gallbladder stores bile until it is needed in the small intestine.

Q44. Which procedure would be listed in the OR schedule for a patient undergoing surgical treatment of uterine fibroids?

  1. pterygium
  2. balanced
  3. sclera
  4. Myomectomy
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: A myomectomy is the procedure performed for the removal of fibromyomas or fibroid tumors from the uterine wall.

Q45. Which of the following directional terms describes the type of skin prep of an entire extremity?

  1. circulator
  2. sigmoidectomy
  3. subluxation
  4. circumferential
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: Circumferential is the term that describes the type of skin prep of an entire extremity.

Q46. Which type of hematoma is a result of torn bridging meningeal veins?

  1. flat
  2. microtia
  3. subdural
  4. sclera
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol: A subdural hematoma is a large, encapsulated collection of blood over one or both cerebral hemispheres that cause intracranial pressure.

Q47. Which of the following methods removes small organic particles and soil from the box locks and ratchets of instruments?

  1. ultrasonic washer
  2. standard precautions
  3. pulmonary embolism
  4. nasolacrimal duct
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol: The ultrasonic cleaner uses the process of cavitation to remove small organic particles and soil from the areas of instrumentation that can’t be accomplished through manual or mechanical cleaning.

Q48. Which of the following is an ossicle of the middle ear?

  1. teeth
  2. incus
  3. 55-60
  4. laser
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol: The auditory ossicles of the middle ear are the malleus, incus and stapes.

Q49. What is the surgical position frequently used for patients undergoing kidney surgery?

  1. glottis
  2. ear
  3. epistaxis
  4. lateral
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: The surgical position frequently used for patients undergoing kidney surgery is the lateral position with the operative site exposed.

Q50. Which of the following is not a benefit of using surface mounted sliding doors for access to the operating room?

  1. bony overgrowth of stapes
  2. aid in controlling temperature
  3. bone to bone fixation
  4. repositioning penetrating towel clip
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol: Sliding doors are usually used in the O. R. because they eliminate air currents caused by swinging doors, but a disadvantage is they do not aid in controlling OR temperature.

Q51. Which of the following terms describes a fracture in which the bone penetrates the skin?

  1. compound
  2. balanced
  3. bacillus
  4. direct
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol: A compound or open fracture is one in which the bone has penetrated the skin layer and protrudes through the opening.

Q52. Which of the following tumors is typically benign encapsulated, and arises from tissue covering the central nervous system structures?,

  1. vomer
  2. pancreas
  3. meningioma
  4. sprilli
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol: A tumor arising from the covering of the brain is a meningioma.

Q53. Which of the following is an abnormal tract between two epithelium lined surfaces that is open at both ends?

  1. third
  2. fistula
  3. pressure
  4. hypertension
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol: A fistula is an abnormal tract that is open at both ends; it most often develops after bladder, bowel and pelvic procedures

Q54. Which portion of the stomach surrounds the lower esophageal sphincter?

  1. cardia
  2. ligature
  3. mydriatics
  4. love
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol: The cardia is the portion of the stomach that surrounds the superior opening of the stomach.

Q55. Which of the following is the wound classification for a bronchoscopy?

  1. patent ductus arteriosus
  2. Ampulla of Vater
  3. time, shielding, distance
  4. Class V: Unclassified
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: Clean-contaminated procedures include those in which the aerodigestive tract is entered. The bronchoscope is inserted through the mouth and into the bronchial tubes; therefore, the procedure is considered clean, not sterile.

Q56. Which of the following is a telescoping of the intestines in neonates requiring immediate surgical intervention?

  1. hysterectomy
  2. hypertension
  3. mitochondria
  4. intussusception
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: Intussusception is the most common emergency surgery for neonates where the portion of the bowel slides into another segment and causes obstruction. The motion is like a telescope.

Q57. Which of the following structures is located in the alveolar processes?

  1. teeth
  2. third
  3. inner
  4. Argon
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol:The teeth are located in the sockets of the alveolar processes of the mandible and maxillae.

Q58. What type of skin graft includes the epidermis and all of the dermis?

  1. webbed fingers
  2. grounding pad
  3. full thickness
  4. cottingham punch
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol: A full-thickness skin graft encompasses both the epidermis and all of the dermis; a split-thickness skin graft includes the epidermis and approximately half of the dermis.

Q59. Use of an intraluminal (circular) stapler (EEA) would be indicated for which of the following surgical procedures?

  1. pterygium
  2. sigmoidectomy
  3. transverse
  4. alpha-chymotrypsin
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol: Intraluminal staplers are used to anastomose tubular organs in the gastrointestinal tract; they are often used during resection and reanastomosis of the colon or rectum.

Q60. Which laser is best used during a vitrectomy?

  1. cecum
  2. argon
  3. laser
  4. 55-60
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol: The argon laser is used because the beam travels through clear tissues without heating them making it ideal for use on retinal disorders.

Q61. Which term refers to an abnormal thoracic curve of the spine referred to as “hunchback?”

  1. cornea
  2. kyphosis
  3. ethmoid
  4. ear
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol: Kyphosis is an exaggeration of the thoracic curve of the spine resulting in a condition commonly called “hunchback”.

Q62. Otoplasty is performed to correct a congenital deformity of which structure?

  1. HCG
  2. flat
  3. trephine
  4. ear
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: Otoplasty is performed to correct a protruding auricle of the ear.

Q63. Who is ultimately responsible for obtaining the surgical informed consent?

  1. surgeon
  2. 24
  3. love
  4. 10
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol: The surgeon is ultimately responsible for obtaining the surgical consent.

Q64. A congenital defect in which the fetal blood vessel between the pulmonary artery and aorta does not close is?

  1. Ampulla of Vater
  2. after each case
  3. patent ductus arteriosus
  4. time, shielding, distance
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol: Patent ductus arteriosus is a congenital defect in which the fetal blood vessel between the pulmonary artery and aorta does not close.

Q65. A congenital defect in which the fetal blood vessel between the pulmonary artery and aorta does not close is?

  1. Ampulla of Vater
  2. after each case
  3. patent ductus arteriosus
  4. time, shielding, distance
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol: Patent ductus arteriosus is a congenital defect in which the fetal blood vessel between the pulmonary artery and aorta does not close.

Q66. Which surgical team member is responsible for setting up the sterile field?

  1. surgically clean
  2. reverse trendelenburg
  3. surgical technologist
  4. nasolacrimal duct
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol: The surgical technologist is responsible for setting up the sterile field.

Q67. Which instrument would be used during a keratoplasty to remove the cornea?

  1. trephine
  2. adaptic
  3. heparin
  4. HCG
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol: A trephine is placed on the cornea to make the circular corneal cut and into the anterior chamber during a keratoplasty.

Q68. Which portion of the surgical gown is considered non sterile?

  1. acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest
  2. res ipsa loquitor (thing speaks for its self)
  3. repositioning penetrating towel clip
  4. upper arms, neckline and axillary region
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: Gowns are considered sterile only in front from chest to level of sterile field and the sleeves from above to the elbows to the cuffs.

Q69. What is the next step for reattachment of a severed digit after debridement?

  1. 1 1/2 hours (90 minutes)
  2. bone to bone fixation
  3. bony overgrowth of stapes
  4. repositioning penetrating towel clip
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol: The bone-to-bone fixation is first accomplished followed by reanastomosis of blood vessels and nerves.

Q70. What is the term for the process of removing blood from an extremity prior to inflating the pneumatic tourniquet?

  1. circulator
  2. mydriatics
  3. exsanguination
  4. hydrocelectomy
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol:  Exsanguination is the term for the process of removing blood from an extremity. 

Q71. Which of the following terms refers to absence of the external ear?

  1. transverse
  2. ethmoid
  3. trauma
  4. microtia
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol:  Microtia is the medical term for the absence of the external ear or auricle.

Q72. What is the most common cause of intracerebral hemorrhage?

  1. hypertension
  2. cerebellum
  3. epistaxis
  4. glottis
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol: The most common cause of intracerebral hemorrhage is hypertension.

Q73. What is the medical term for nosebleed?

  1. appendectomy
  2. insulin
  3. epistaxis
  4. spores
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol: Epistaxis is the medical term for nosebleed.

Q74. The highly vascular layer of the eye that absorbs light rays and nourishes the retina is the?

  1. circulator
  2. inguinal
  3. choroid
  4. pharynx
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol: The choroid is highly vascularized and provides nutrients to the posterior surface of the retina

Q75. The apron like structure attached to the greater curvature of the stomach is the?

  1. parasitism
  2. third
  3. vomer
  4. omentum
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: The greater omentum is an apron-like structure that lies over the intestines.

Q76. Low level disinfectants kill most microbes but do not destroy?,

  1. heparin
  2. mydriatics
  3. cecum
  4. spores
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: Low-level disinfectants kill most types of bacteria and some fungi and viruses, but do not kill spores and M. tuberculosis.

Q77. The avascular clear portion of the eye covering the iris is the?,

  1. direct
  2. biological
  3. acute
  4. cornea
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: The cornea is nonvascular, transparent and covers the iris.

Q78. Satinsky Herrick, and Mayo clamps may be specifically used on which of the following structures?,

  1. kidney pedicle
  2. grounding pad
  3. cottingham punch
  4. notify surgeon
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol: Satinsky, Herrick and Mayo clamps are commonly used during procedures on the kidney; specifically they are clamped onto the kidney pedicle.

Q79. What type of sponge is tightly rolled cotton tape used by surgeons for blunt dissection?

  1. Escherichia coli
  2. anesthesia provider
  3. kitner (peanut)
  4. standard precautions
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol: Kitner dissecting sponges are small rolls of cotton tape that are tightly rolled and used by the surgeon for blunt dissection. The sponge is loaded on the tip of a clamp such as a Kelly.

Q80. What degrees Celsius is the steam sterilization biological indicator incubated?

  1. Argon
  2. third
  3. 55-60
  4. laser
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol: The steam biological indicator must be incubated at a temperature of 55-60° C.

Q81. The outer layer of the intestine is the?

  1. insulin
  2. serosa
  3. Argon
  4. glottis
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol: The serosa is the outermost layer of most portions of the gastrointestinal tract

Q82. Which of the following routine preoperative laboratory studies would be ordered for premenopausal women with no history of hysterectomy?

  1. 270-276
  2. ear
  3. sclera
  4. HCG
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: Blood or a urine sample should be given preoperatively in a premenopausal woman to check for human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) which is an indicator for pregnancy.

Q83. The islets of Langerhans secrete?

  1. supine
  2. potassium
  3. direct
  4. insulin
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: The islets of Langerhans secrete glucagon, insulin, somatostatin, and pancreatic polypeptide.

Q84. The nasal sinus located between the nose and the orbits is the?

  1. ethmoid
  2. 10
  3. adaptic
  4. 85
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol: The ethmoid sinus is located between the nose and orbits.

Q85. For which procedure would Trendelenburg position provide optimal visualization?

  1. atherosclerosis
  2. hysterectomy
  3. Depo-Medrol
  4. sprilli
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol: The Trendelenburg position is best used for pelvic and lower abdominal procedures such as an abdominal hysterectomy. The position allows the viscerat to fall away or toward the head for better exposure of the operative site.

Q86. For which of the following procedures would a McBurney incision be indicated?

  1. inguinal
  2. hysterectomy
  3. appendectomy
  4. balanced
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol: McBurney incision is primarily used for removal of the appendix.

Q87. Which of the following actions would be a violation of aseptic technique?

  1. feet first, side rails up
  2. repositioning penetrating towel clip
  3. bony overgrowth of stapes
  4. acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol: If a towel clip penetrates a sterile drape, the tips of the clip must be considered contaminated and it should not be removed until the end of the procedure.

Q88. Which of the following regulations states that blood and body fluids should be considered infectious?

  1. reverse trendelenburg
  2. nasolacrimal duct
  3. endotracheal intubation
  4. standard precautions
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: Standard Precautions, as defined by the CDC in 1996, are a combination of Universal Precautions and body substance isolation rules that state all body fluids and blood should be considered infectious.

Q89. The minimum Fahrenheit temperature for sterilization to occur in a prevacuum steam sterilizer is?

  1. biological
  2. glottis
  3. potassium
  4. 270-276
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: The minimum exposure of minutes at 270-276° F must occur in order for items to be rendered sterile.

Q90. Which of the following is a major source of distress for toddler and preschool age patients being transported to the operating room?

  1. incident report
  2. separation anxiety
  3. endotracheal intubation
  4. reverse trendelenburg
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol: Separation anxiety is the major source of distress for toddler and preschool aged patients.

Q91. The vocal cords are located in the?

  1. formalin
  2. skeletal
  3. larynx
  4. flat
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol: The larynx is the location of the vocal cords.

Q92. What incision is also known as a lower oblique?

  1. inguinal
  2. pfannenstiel
  3. mitochondria
  4. trauma
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol: Another name for a lower oblique incision is inguinal incision.

Q93. How often should surgical masks be changed?

  1. after each case
  2. Ampulla of Vater
  3. time, shielding, distance
  4. 10 minutes
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol: Surgical masks should be changed after each case. 

Q94. To which portion of the colon is the appendix attached?

  1. vomer
  2. laser
  3. Argon
  4. cecum
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: The appendix is attached to the cecum.  

Q95. Which of the following may require probing and dilating in pediatric patients with upper respiratory infections?

  1. notify surgeon
  2. surgically clean
  3. Escherichia coli
  4. nasolacrimal duct
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: The nasolacrimal duct carries the lacrimal fluid and tears into the nasal cavity; the duct can become obstructed in pediatric patients who experience chronic URIs.

Q96.  The organ that is connected by a duct to the duodenum is the?

  1. flat
  2. pancreas
  3. cystocele
  4. cerebellum
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol: The common bile duct is formed by the junction of the cystic and hepatic ducts, and varies in length from 5-17 cm on its path to the duodenum

Q97. What is the surgical position commonly used for thyroid and gallbladder surgery?

  1. endotracheal intubation
  2. anesthesia provider
  3. reverse trendelenburg
  4. surgically clean
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol: Reverse Trendelenburg position provides good exposure of the operative site for a thyroidectomy and allows the viscera to fall away or toward the feet to provide better exposure of the gallbladder.

Q98. What is the position most commonly used for mitral valve replacement?

  1. supine
  2. cystocele
  3. acute
  4. pterygium
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol: Supine position is the optimal surgical position for mitral valve replacement procedure.

Q99. Syndactyl refers to?

  1. webbed fingers
  2. surgically clean
  3. clostridium tetani
  4. pulmonary embolism
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol:  Webbing of the digits is syndactyly 

Q100. What is the minimum number of minutes to sterilize unwrapped metal instruments with lumens in the gravity displacement sterilizer at 270 degrees F?

  1. U drape
  2. incident report
  3. 10 minutes
  4. Hallux valgus
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol:  When immediate-use sterilization (formerly called “flash sterilization”) is used to sterilize items with lumens in the gravity sterilizer, the
items must be exposed to 270° F for 10 minutes.

Q101. What is another name for the electrosurgical unit’s patient return electrode?

  1. Escherichia coli
  2. grounding pad
  3. Hallux valgus
  4. incident report
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol:  Another name for electrosurgical unit’s return electrode is grounding pad. 

Q102. The space between the vocal cords is called the?

  1. glottis
  2. pfannenstiel
  3. adaptic
  4. potassium
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol:  The glottis is the space between the vocal cords. .

Q103. Under what circumstances would it be appropriate to remove a patient’s identification bracelet?

  1. res ipsa loquitor (thing speaks for its self)
  2. patient marks with an “X” and witness verifies
  3. never until patient is discharged from facility
  4. acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol:  Never remove a patient’s identification bracelet unless the patient is discharged from the facility.

Q104. What is the first step taken for an incorrect sponge count?

  1. surgically clean
  2. incident report
  3. lukewarm water
  4. notify surgeon
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol:  The surgeon should be immediately notified and a recount completed.

Q105. Which bacteria could be found in a penetrating wound caused by a rusty nail?

  1. cottingham punch
  2. clostridium tetani
  3. artificial active
  4. incident report
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol:  Clostridium tetani could possibly be found in a penetrating wound caused by a rusty nail.

Q106. Which of the following terms means a prolapsed bladder causing a bulge in the anterior vaginal wall?

  1. cystocele
  2. trauma
  3. Argon
  4. parasitism
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol:  A cystocele is a herniation of the bladder that causes a downward bulge in the anterior vaginal wall, usually as a result of surgical trauma, age, or weakness of the supporting muscles of the bladder due to childbirth.

Q107. When using the warm cycle of the EtO sterilizer what is the minimum sterilization temperature in Fahrenheit?,

  1. 85
  2. 24
  3. 10
  4. acute
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol:  Gas sterilizers operate at a lower temperature as compared to steam sterilizers. The gas sterilizer operates between 85-145° F.

Q108. Which of the following is a commonly used preservative for tissue specimens?

  1. adaptic
  2. love
  3. formalin
  4. latrogenic
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol:  Formalin is the most common preservative solution that tissue specimens are placed in.

Q109. Which of the following tissues are cut using curved Mayo scissors?

  1. subluxation
  2. fascia
  3. acute
  4. pterygium
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol:  Curved Mayo scissors are large scissors with thick blades that are used to cut tough tissue such as fascia, tendons and muscle.

Q110. Which of the following identifiers must be verified by the patient or their ID bracelet prior to transporting a patient to the OR?

  1. 1 1/2 hours (90 minutes)
  2. name, date of birth, physician
  3. acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest
  4. feet first, side rails up
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol:  The patient should be identified by name, date of birth and physician on their ID bracelet prior to transporting the patient to the OR. (

Q111. Medication used to dilate the pupil is called?

  1. mydriatics
  2. direct
  3. sprilli
  4. vomer
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol:  Dilating drops are called mydriatics and are used to dilate the pupil for examination of the retina, refraction testing, or easier removal of the lens.(

Q112. What size of Foley catheter is commonly used for adults?

  1. 16 Fr
  2. vomer
  3. laser
  4. Argon
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol:  16 Fr is the size of a Foley catheter commonly used on adults.

Q113. Which of the following terms describes a hernia that occurs within Hesselbach’s triangle?

  1. direct
  2. adaptic
  3. Depo-Medrol
  4. flat
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol:  Hernia that occurs within Hesselbach’s triangle and does not have a sac is a direct inguinal hernia.

Q114. What postoperative complication is associated with total hip arthroplasty?

  1. pulmonary embolism
  2. artificial active
  3. cottingham punch
  4. endotracheal intubation
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol: Pulmonary embolism can be caused by fat which dislodges after fracture of a long bone or pelvis, or when performing a total hip arthroplasty.

Q115. Which of the following is a mechanical method of hemostasis?

  1. mitochondria
  2. third
  3. ligature
  4. Argon
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol: Ligature, also called ties or stick ties when a needle is attached, are strands of suture material used to tie off a blood vessel to stop bleeding.

Q116. What position is most commonly used for neurosurgical procedures?

  1. cerebellum
  2. pressure
  3. supine
  4. inner
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol: The most commonly used position for neurosurgical procedures is supine since it allows exposure to the frontal, parietal, and temporal lobes

Q117. Which of the following is a nonadherent dressing?

  1. penrose
  2. love
  3. vomer
  4. adaptic
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: Adaptic™ is a type of nonadherent dressing that can be used as the inner layer of a three-layer dressing.

Q118. A properly performed surgical scrub renders the skin?

  1. lukewarm water
  2. surgically clean
  3. Hallux valgus
  4. anesthesia provider
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol: The skin is rendered surgically clean when a properly performed surgical scrub is done. 

Q119. The fibrous white layer that gives the eye its shape is the?

  1. pharynx
  2. inner
  3. sclera
  4. heparin
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol:  The sclera gives shape to the eyeball and makes it more rigid.  

Q120. The cartilaginous nasal septum is anterior to which bone?

  1. third
  2. laser
  3. inner
  4. vomer
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol:  The vomer forms the inferior and posterior parts of the nasal septum.

Q121. Which of the following monitors provides positive assurance of sterility?

  1. laser
  2. Argon
  3. inner
  4. biological
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol:  The biological indicator (BI) contains Bacillus stearothermophilus which is killed when exposed to steam sterilization conditions. Therefore, the BI is theonly test that guarantees sterility.

Q122. When would the anesthesia provider request cricoid pressure?

  1. endotracheal intubation
  2. anesthesia provider
  3. bacillus stearothermophilus
  4. clostridium perfringens
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol:  Cricoid pressure occludes the esophagus to prevent regurgitation.

Q123. How many hours must the steam sterilization biological indicator incubate?

  1. 24
  2. 85
  3. sprilli
  4. 10
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol:  The steam sterilization biological indicator must be incubated for 24 hours before the reading is recorded.

Q124. A brain tumor causing alteration of muscle tone voluntary muscle coordination, gait and balance would likely be located in the?

  1. sprilli
  2. subluxation
  3. pressure
  4. cerebellum
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol:  The functions of the cerebrum include regulating the initiation and termination of voluntary movements of the body, regulating the muscle tone that is necessary for body movements and control the subconscious contractions of skeletal muscles. 

Q125. Which of the following is a type of passive drain?

  1. potassium
  2. penrose
  3. inner
  4. flat
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol:  The Penrose drain is a passive drain made from latex that relies on gravity for wound drainage. 

Q126. The agent used to flush an artery to prevent clotting is?

  1. backtable
  2. subluxation
  3. love
  4. heparin
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol:  Heparinized saline is an irrigating solution used to flush the inside of an artery.

Q127. What condition is characterized by build up of fatty deposits such as cholesterol?

  1. Depo-Medrol
  2. alpha-chymotrypsin
  3. parasitism
  4. atherosclerosis
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol:  A disorder in which fatty deposits form on the walls of arteries known as atherosclerosis.

Q128. Which organelle is responsible for the production of energy?

  1. pressure
  2. pharynx
  3. pfannenstiel
  4. mitochondria
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol:  Mitochondria produce energy-rich ATP.

Q129. What is the medical term for a bunion?

  1. incident report
  2. Hallux valgus
  3. lukewarm water
  4. cottingham punch
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol:  Hallux valgus is the medical term for a bunion which is a bony exostosis located on the medial side of the first metatarsal head of the big toe.

Q130. A topical steroid used to reduce inflammation after eye surgery is?

  1. pfannenstiel
  2. bacillus
  3. pressure
  4. Depo-Medrol
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol:  Methylprednisolone acetate (Depo-Medrol®) is a steroid used topically to diminish inflammation after ophthalmic surgery

Q131. Plaster rolls for casting should be submerged in which of the following?

  1. lukewarm water
  2. anesthesia provider
  3. incident report
  4. Escherichia coli
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol:  Plaster rolls used in casting should be submerged in slightly or lukewarm water at approximately 70-75° F.

Q132. Which legal principle applies when the patient is given the wrong dose of the local anesthetic?

  1. acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest
  2. cottingham punch
  3. res ipsa loquitor (thing speaks for its self)
  4. patient marks with an “X” and witness verifies
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol:  Res ipsa loquitur means “the thing speaks for itself”, referring that the harm to the patient came from a given act of which the care giver had sole control.

Q133. How many hours must an item submerse in glutaraldehyde to sterilize?

  1. 24
  2. 85
  3. pharynx
  4. 10
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol:  Glutaraldehyde is a liquid disinfecting and sterilizing agent. To sterilize an item it must be submersed for 10 hours.

Q134. What is the definition of otosclerosis?

  1. clostridium perfringens
  2. feet first, side rails up
  3. bony overgrowth of stapes
  4. bacillus stearothermophilus
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol:  Otosclerosis is the bony overgrowth of the stapes causing the footplate to become fixed to the oval window preventing the normal sound vibrations from entering the inner ear.

Q135. Which organism is a normal resident flora of the intestinal tract?

  1. Escherichia coli
  2. cottingham punch
  3. artificial active
  4. anesthesia provider
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol:  Escherichia coli is a gram-negative rod that is part of the normal flora of the intestinal tract of humans and is also an opportunistic bacteria.

Q136. Which thermal method of hemostasis utilizes intense focused light?,

  1. Argon
  2. acute
  3. laser
  4. inner
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol:  The laser provides an intense and concentrated beam of light.

Q137. What type of anesthesia is a combination of inhalation and intravenous drugs?

  1. Argon
  2. latrogenic
  3. third
  4. balanced
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol:  Balanced anesthesia is also known as neuroleptanesthesia.

Q138. Which of the following drapes is non fenestrated?

  1. artificial active
  2. anesthesia provider
  3. cottingham punch
  4. U drape
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol:  U-drape is a type of nonfenestrated split sheet in which the tails are created by a U-shape in the center of the drape.

Q139. Which portion of the ear is affected by Meniere’s syndrome?

  1. Argon
  2. inner
  3. acute
  4. third
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol:  Méniére’s syndrome involves an increased amount of endolymph that enlarges the membranous labyrinth, which is located in the inner ear.

Q140. What type of disease is characterized by rapid onset and a rapid recovery?

  1. laser
  2. third
  3. acute
  4. Argon
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol:  An acute disease is one that has a rapid onset and is followed by a speedy recovery

Q141. Hyperkalemia is a high concentration of?

  1. backtable
  2. third
  3. potassium
  4. pressure
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol:  Potassium plays four important roles: influences the electrical excitability of cells; amount of potassium in cells affects cell volume; potassium balance is important in maintaining the acid-base balance; amount of potassium in cells affects cell metabolism. Hyperkalemia, an abnormal level of potassium, can be life threatening causing cardiac irregularities

Q142. The most reliable method for determining the efficiency of moist heat sterilizers is the controlled use of biological indicators containing the organism?

  1. clostridium perfringens
  2. incident report
  3. artificial active
  4. bacillus stearothermophilus
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol:  B. stearothermophilus is a microbe that is highly resistant to destruction by steam sterilization, but does not cause disease in humans. 

Q143. How is the surgical informed consent signed if an adult patient is illiterate?

  1. bilateral fallopian tubes and ovaries, uterus
  2. acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest
  3. artificial active
  4. patient marks with an “X” and witness verifies
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol:  A witness verifies that the patient who is illiterate marks with an “X”.

Q144. The enzyme used to soften the zonules of the lens before cataract surgery is?

  1. alpha-chymotrypsin
  2. hydrocelectomy
  3. pfannenstiel
  4. sprilli
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol:  Alpha-chymotrypsin is a solution used to soften the zonules holding the lens before cataract surgery to ease extraction of the lens.

Q145.The surgical pack utilized to create the sterile field should be opened on the?

  1. love
  2. backtable
  3. skeletal
  4. pterygium
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol:  Surgical packs should be opened on the back table.

Q146. A partially dislocated joint is called?

  1. transverse
  2. latrogenic
  3. pharynx
  4. subluxation
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: A complete displacement of a joint or displacement of one articular surface from another is called a luxation and a partial dislocation is called a subluxation.

Q147. When perforated metal trays are placed on the shelves of the steam sterilizing cart they should be positioned?,

  1. flat
  2. love
  3. pressure
  4. 4
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol: Metal trays that are perforated or have a mesh bottom should be placed on the sterilizing cart flat.

Q148. What is the recommended maximum time limit for a tourniquet to remain inflated on an adult lower extremity?

  1. acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest
  2. feet first, side rails up
  3. clostridium perfringens
  4. 1 1/2 hours (90 minutes)
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: The tourniquet should be deflated every 1 ½ hours to allow blood flow into the leg and transport oxygen to prevent tissue necrosis.

Q149. What is the burn degree classification that involves the epidermis and subcutaneous tissue?

  1. cecum
  2. argon
  3. Argon
  4. third
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: The skin, along with its epithelial structures and subcutaneous tissue, is destroyed in a third-degree burn.

Q150. Which of the following retractors is used for spinal nerve roots?

  1. flat
  2. love
  3. pressure
  4. Argon
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: The Love nerve root retractor is used during spinal procedures such as a laminectomy to gently retract the nerve roots

Q151. What is the medical term for removal of the uterus?

  1. pressure
  2. hysterectomy
  3. skeletal
  4. pharynx
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol:  Hysterectomy is the medical term that means removal of the uterus. Hyster is the root word that means “uterus”; -ectomy is a suffix meaning “removal or excision of”.

Q152. Which of the following is a curved transverse incision across the lower abdomen frequently used in gynecological surgery?

  1. sprilli
  2. pfannenstiel
  3. circulator
  4. pressure
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol:  Pfannenstiel’s incision is a curved transverse incision across the lower abdomen and used frequently in gynecologic surgery. 

Q153. What are spiral shaped bacteria called?

  1. pressure
  2. sprilli
  3. Argon
  4. latrogenic
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol:  Spirilla are spiral-shaped bacteria.

Q154. Through which of the following do the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct empty?

  1. Ampulla of Vater
  2. artificial active
  3. time, shielding, distance
  4. hydrocelectomy
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol:  The pancreatic duct joins the common bile duct and enters the duodenum as a common duct called the hepatopancreatic ampulla or the ampulla of Vater.

Q155. What is the name of the procedure for the excision of the tunica vaginalis?

  1. hydrocelectomy
  2. transverse
  3. pterygium
  4. circulator
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol:  Excision of the tunica vaginalis of the testis is called a hydrocelectomy.

Q156. What is the required minimum number of individuals to transfer an incapacitated patient from the OR table to the stretcher?

  1. trauma
  2. 4
  3. pressure
  4. Argon
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol:  A minimum of four people is required. The anesthesia provider is responsible for the head and neck of the patient, one person on the side of the stretcher, one person on the side of the O.R. table, and a person at the end of the O.R. table responsible for the feet and legs

Q157. Which of these conditions is characterized by a fleshy encroachment of conjunctiva onto the cornea?

  1. pterygium
  2. Argon
  3. trauma
  4. latrogenic
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol: Pterygium is a fleshy encroachment of conjunctiva onto the cornea.

Q158. An injury a patient sustains as a result of the care given by a healthcare professional is called?

  1. pharynx
  2. trauma
  3. Argon
  4. latrogenic
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol: A patient that sustains an injury, either unintentional or intentional, caused when a health care provider is caring for the patient is called an iatrogenic injury.

Q159. Which of these instruments would be used during a keratoplasty?

  1. cottingham punch
  2. artificial active
  3. incident report
  4. anesthesia provider
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol: The Cottingham punch is used to create the correct size of the donor cornea during a keratoplasty.

Q160. Which structure has oral nasal, and laryngeal divisions?,

  1. pharynx
  2. skeletal
  3. transverse
  4. Argon
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol: The nasopharynx is the uppermost portion of the pharynx; the middle portion of the pharynx is the oropharynx; and the lowest portion of the pharynx is the laryngopharynx.

Q161. What direction should the stretcher be oriented when transporting a patient to the OR department?

  1. time, shielding, distance
  2. acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest
  3. clostridium perfringens
  4. feet first, side rails u
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: The direction of the stretcher should be oriented feet first, side rails up when a patient is being transported to the O.R. department on the stretcher.

Q162. The most common cause of retinal detachment is?

  1. trauma
  2. Argon
  3. transverse
  4. skeletal
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol: Trauma is the most common cause of retinal detachment.

Q163. What is the term for a relationship that benefits one organism at the expense of another?

  1. circulator
  2. pressure
  3. parasitism
  4. bacillus
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol: Parasitism is a relationship in which an organism benefits at the expense of the host microorganisms.

Q164. Which muscle type is striated and voluntary?

  • skeletal
  • bacillus
  • Argon
  • circulator
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol: Skeletal muscle tissue is striated because the fibers contain alternating light and dark bands perpendicular to the long area of the fibers. It is considered voluntary because it is controlled consciously. 

Q165. In addition to temperature time and moisture, what is the fourth factor that determines the outcome of the steam sterilization process?

  1. pressure
  2. Argon
  3. bacillus
  4. transverse
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 1
Sol: The four factors of steam sterilization are pressure, temperature, moisture and time. Pressure is used to increase the temperature of the steam to the level where it will kill microbes including spores.

Q166. Which organism causes gas gangrene?

  1. anesthesia provider
  2. clostridium perfringens
  3. incident report
  4. artificial active
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol: McBurney incision is primarily used for removal of the appendix.

Q167. What type of acquired immunity is a vaccination?

  1. Argon
  2. anesthesia provider
  3. incident report
  4. artificial active
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: Vaccination is artificially acquired active immunity.

Q168. What type of drape would be used for a flank procedure?

  • bacillus
  • transverse
  • Argon
  • circulator
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol: A procedure in which the patient is placed in the lateral position and a flank incision is made a transverse drape will be used.

Q169. Chest rolls should span the distance bilaterally between which two anatomical structures?

  1. Argon
  2. circulator
  3. time, shielding, distance
  4. acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: Chest rolls should span the distance bilaterally between acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest.

Q170. What are the three factors for reducing ionizing radiation exposure?

  1. incident report
  2. circulator
  3. patent ductus arteriosus
  4. time, shielding, distance
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: Time relates to the length of time the surgical technologist is exposed to the ionizing radiation. Shielding means donning lead aprons and other lead shield devices for protection from the radiation. Distance means standing as far away as possible out of the path of the direct beam of ionizing radiation.

Q171. Which laser beam can travel through clear tissues without heating them?

  1. coude
  2. 55-60
  3. third
  4. Argon
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 4
Sol: The argon laser beam can travel through clear fluids and tissues.

Q172. Which of the following is a non sterile member of the surgical team?

  1. Myomectomy
  2. incident report
  3. circulator
  4. bacillus
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol: he circulator is not a part of the sterile team. The circulator performs his/her duties on the periphery of the sterile field.

Q173. Which term describes a rod shaped microorganism?

  1. commensalism
  2. ethmoid
  3. bacillus
  4. incus
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol: Bacillus is a rod-shaped bacteria.

Q174. Which surgical team member determines when the patient can be transported from the OR to the PACU?

  1. incident report
  2. anesthesia provider
  3. pulmonary embolism
  4. lukewarm water
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 2
Sol: The anesthesia provider makes the decision as to when the patient is stable and ready for transport from the O.R. to the PACU.

Q175. What institutional document is completed when an adverse or unusual event takes place in the OR that may have legal consequences for the staff or patient?

  1. notify surgeon
  2. arthropod bites
  3. incident report
  4. nasolacrimal duct
View Correct Answer
 Correct option: 3
Sol: An event/incident report is completed by members of the surgical team that are witness to any unusual or adverse event that affected the care provided to the surgical patient.

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