Last Updated on May 22, 2024
Certified Surgical Technologist (CST) Practice Test 1 (AST Exam #1) – 175 Question Answers: Optimize your preparation for the National Board of Surgical Technology and Surgical Assisting (NBSTSA) and the Association of Surgical Technologists (AST) CST and CSFA exams with our comprehensive practice test. This guide includes 175 carefully formulated questions to help you effectively prepare for both the NBSTSA Practice Test and the AST final exam.
These questions cover the essential knowledge areas required for the certification, ensuring a thorough review of the concepts and practices critical to success in the CST and CSFA examinations.
Certified Surgical Technologist Practice Test 1
Test Prep for | Certified Surgical Technologist Practice Test |
Applicable for | NBSTSA or AST |
Types of Question | Sample Test for preparation |
Total Question | 175 |
Question Format | Multiple-Choice |
Total Time Duration | 4 hours |
Answers Available | Yes |
Explanation | Yes |
Printable PDF | Yes |
Purpose | Surgical Technologist Certifying Exam Study Guide |
AST Practice Exam #1
You can participate in the Certified Surgical Technologist Practice Test 1 (AST Exam #1) Quiz Question Answers. In addition, we have also uploaded a printable PDF for AST Practice Exam #1.
- upper arms, neckline and axillary region
- bilateral fallopian tubes and ovaries, uterus
- patient marks with an “X” and witness verify
- never until the patient is discharged from the facility
Q2. The spiral conical structure of the inner ear is the?,
- penrose
- cochlea
- formalin
- third
Q3. What is the term for a relationship in which two organisms occupy the same area and one organism benefits while the other is unharmed?
- mitochondria
- parotid
- penrose
- commensalism
Q4. Permission for treatment given with full knowledge of the risks is a/an?
- informed consent
- artificial active
- abdominal aortic
- clostridium tetani
Q5. Which of the following is a method of high-level disinfection?
- name, date of birth, physician
- feet first, side rails up
- acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest
- 2% glutaraldehyde for 20 minutes
Q6. The mumps may be diagnosed by finding inflammation in which of the following glands?
- third
- 270-276
- hysterectomy
- parotid
Q7. How should the stretcher be oriented when necessary to use an elevator to transport a patient to the or?
- acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest
- enter head first, exit feet first
- name, date of birth, physician
- repositioning penetrating towel clip
Q8. Which of the following solutions should be used to prep the donor site for a split-thickness skin graft?
- hypertension
- compound
- anaerobes
- chlorhexidine
Q9. What type of procedure would involve the removal of teeth?
- bacillus
- extractions
- systolic
- insulin
Q10. Which of the following is a fenestrated drape?
- mitochondria
- aperture
- systolic
- fistula
Q11. Compression of the heart from excessive fluid or blood buildup is called?
- fistula
- tamponade
- daily
- flat
Q12. Which is the first part of the small intestine?
- cerumen
- love
- fistula
- duodenum
Q12. Which suffix means surgical puncture to remove fluid?
- -centesis
- subdural
- kyphosis
- fascia
13. Which of the following is an examination of the cervix using a binocular microscope?
- atherosclerosis
- acute
- trauma
- colposcopy
14. Which ossicle of the middle ear covers the oval window?
- 85
- daily
- stapes
- parasitism
15. Where should the safety strap be placed on a patient who is in the supine position?
- Ampulla of Vater
- pharynx and trachea
- over the thighs
- after each case
16. How are rickettsiae transmitted?
- cancer procedures
- kidney pedicle
- arthropod bites
- lukewarm water
Q17. What is the name of the condition in which a loop of bowel herniates into the Douglas’s cul-de-sac?
- insulin
- meningioma
- epistaxis
- enterocele
Q18. What is the action of antagonist drugs?
- upper arms, neckline and axillary region
- counteract the action of another drug
- repositioning penetrating towel clip
- acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest
Q19. Which surgical procedure is performed to correct an abnormality in which the urethral meatus is situated on the superior aspect of the penis?
- epispadias repair
- spinal stenosis
- incident report
- reverse trendelenburg
Q20. What is the term for thread like appendages that provide bacteria with motion?
- mitochondria
- fistula
- insulin
- flagella
Q21. What is another name for the Kraske position?
- trauma
- choroid
- jackknife
- sprilli
Q22. Where is a Baker’s cyst located?
- popliteal fossa
- surgically clean
- 10 minutes
- webbed fingers
Q23. Where should the first scrub surgical technologist stand when handing towels to the surgeon to square off an incision site?
- bone to bone fixation
- bony overgrowth of stapes
- same side as surgeon
- distilled water in lumen
Q24. What surgical position provides optimal visualization of the lower abdomen or pelvis?
- trendelenburg
- skeletal
- subdural
- alpha-chymotrypsin
Q25. Which of the following is used by the surgeon to intermittently remove prostatic tissue fragments during a TURP?
- full thickness
- gram stain
- ellik evacuator
- anesthesia provider
Q26. Another name for the tympanic membrane is the?
- lateral
- trephine
- eardrum
- parasitism
Q27. What is the name of the urinary catheter with a small curved tapered tip used on patients with urethral strictures?,
- coude
- 55-60
- acute
- laser
Q28. Which microbes live without oxygen?
- subluxation
- compound
- anaerobes
- third
Q29. Which neurosurgical pathology would a myelogram diagnose?
- spinal stenosis
- 10 minutes
- cottingham punch
- cancer procedures.
Q30. A term referring to a waxy secretion in the external ear canal is?
- trephine
- cerebellum
- cerumen
- circulator
Q31. Which of the following dilators are used in the common duct?
- teeth
- bakes
- 55-60
- argon
Q32. In what circumstances would cell saver transfusion be contraindicated?
- ultrasonic washer
- cottingham punch
- cancer procedures
- separation anxiety
Q33. Which aneurysm usually develops between the renal and iliac arteries?
- incident report
- abdominal aortic
- Escherichia coli
- grounding pad
Q34. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs which of the following is the patient satisfying when he/she trusts the surgical team’s abilities?,
- parasitism
- pterygium
- trauma
- safety
Q35. Which laboratory test determines bacterial identification?
- 16 Fr
- U drape
- gram stain
- lukewarm water
Q36. The small intestine attaches to the posterior abdominal wall by the?
- systolic
- mesentery
- pressure
- cecum
Q37. Which of the following incisions is oblique?
- fascia
- microtia
- formalin
- kocher
Q38. The bowie dick test is performed?
- daily
- cecum
- incus
- vomer
Q39. When a patient’s blood pressure is 135/81 135 refers to?
- systolic
- teeth
- meningioma
- parasitism
Q40. The nasal cavity is divided into two portions by the?
- septum
- ear
- insulin
- HCG
Q41. What is the proper method for preparing a Frazier suction tip for steam sterilization?
- bony overgrowth of stapes
- distilled water in lumen
- repositioning penetrating towel clip
- bone to bone fixation
Q42. The larynx is located between the?
- Ampulla of Vater
- Class V: Unclassified
- patent ductus arteriosus
- pharynx and trachea
Q43. The primary function of the gallbladder is to?
- store bile
- grounding pad
- U drape
- kitner (peanut)
Q44. Which procedure would be listed in the OR schedule for a patient undergoing surgical treatment of uterine fibroids?
- pterygium
- balanced
- sclera
- Myomectomy
Q45. Which of the following directional terms describes the type of skin prep of an entire extremity?
- circulator
- sigmoidectomy
- subluxation
- circumferential
Q46. Which type of hematoma is a result of torn bridging meningeal veins?
- flat
- microtia
- subdural
- sclera
Q47. Which of the following methods removes small organic particles and soil from the box locks and ratchets of instruments?
- ultrasonic washer
- standard precautions
- pulmonary embolism
- nasolacrimal duct
Q48. Which of the following is an ossicle of the middle ear?
- teeth
- incus
- 55-60
- laser
Q49. What is the surgical position frequently used for patients undergoing kidney surgery?
- glottis
- ear
- epistaxis
- lateral
Q50. Which of the following is not a benefit of using surface mounted sliding doors for access to the operating room?
- bony overgrowth of stapes
- aid in controlling temperature
- bone to bone fixation
- repositioning penetrating towel clip
Q51. Which of the following terms describes a fracture in which the bone penetrates the skin?
- compound
- balanced
- bacillus
- direct
Q52. Which of the following tumors is typically benign encapsulated, and arises from tissue covering the central nervous system structures?,
- vomer
- pancreas
- meningioma
- sprilli
Q53. Which of the following is an abnormal tract between two epithelium lined surfaces that is open at both ends?
- third
- fistula
- pressure
- hypertension
Q54. Which portion of the stomach surrounds the lower esophageal sphincter?
- cardia
- ligature
- mydriatics
- love
Q55. Which of the following is the wound classification for a bronchoscopy?
- patent ductus arteriosus
- Ampulla of Vater
- time, shielding, distance
- Class V: Unclassified
Q56. Which of the following is a telescoping of the intestines in neonates requiring immediate surgical intervention?
- hysterectomy
- hypertension
- mitochondria
- intussusception
Q57. Which of the following structures is located in the alveolar processes?
- teeth
- third
- inner
- Argon
Q58. What type of skin graft includes the epidermis and all of the dermis?
- webbed fingers
- grounding pad
- full thickness
- cottingham punch
Q59. Use of an intraluminal (circular) stapler (EEA) would be indicated for which of the following surgical procedures?
- pterygium
- sigmoidectomy
- transverse
- alpha-chymotrypsin
Q60. Which laser is best used during a vitrectomy?
- cecum
- argon
- laser
- 55-60
Q61. Which term refers to an abnormal thoracic curve of the spine referred to as “hunchback?”
- cornea
- kyphosis
- ethmoid
- ear
Q62. Otoplasty is performed to correct a congenital deformity of which structure?
- HCG
- flat
- trephine
- ear
Q63. Who is ultimately responsible for obtaining the surgical informed consent?
- surgeon
- 24
- love
- 10
Q64. A congenital defect in which the fetal blood vessel between the pulmonary artery and aorta does not close is?
- Ampulla of Vater
- after each case
- patent ductus arteriosus
- time, shielding, distance
Q65. A congenital defect in which the fetal blood vessel between the pulmonary artery and aorta does not close is?
- Ampulla of Vater
- after each case
- patent ductus arteriosus
- time, shielding, distance
Q66. Which surgical team member is responsible for setting up the sterile field?
- surgically clean
- reverse trendelenburg
- surgical technologist
- nasolacrimal duct
Q67. Which instrument would be used during a keratoplasty to remove the cornea?
- trephine
- adaptic
- heparin
- HCG
Q68. Which portion of the surgical gown is considered non sterile?
- acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest
- res ipsa loquitor (thing speaks for its self)
- repositioning penetrating towel clip
- upper arms, neckline and axillary region
Q69. What is the next step for reattachment of a severed digit after debridement?
- 1 1/2 hours (90 minutes)
- bone to bone fixation
- bony overgrowth of stapes
- repositioning penetrating towel clip
Q70. What is the term for the process of removing blood from an extremity prior to inflating the pneumatic tourniquet?
- circulator
- mydriatics
- exsanguination
- hydrocelectomy
Q71. Which of the following terms refers to absence of the external ear?
- transverse
- ethmoid
- trauma
- microtia
Q72. What is the most common cause of intracerebral hemorrhage?
- hypertension
- cerebellum
- epistaxis
- glottis
Q73. What is the medical term for nosebleed?
- appendectomy
- insulin
- epistaxis
- spores
Q74. The highly vascular layer of the eye that absorbs light rays and nourishes the retina is the?
- circulator
- inguinal
- choroid
- pharynx
Q75. The apron like structure attached to the greater curvature of the stomach is the?
- parasitism
- third
- vomer
- omentum
Q76. Low level disinfectants kill most microbes but do not destroy?,
- heparin
- mydriatics
- cecum
- spores
Q77. The avascular clear portion of the eye covering the iris is the?,
- direct
- biological
- acute
- cornea
Q78. Satinsky Herrick, and Mayo clamps may be specifically used on which of the following structures?,
- kidney pedicle
- grounding pad
- cottingham punch
- notify surgeon
Q79. What type of sponge is tightly rolled cotton tape used by surgeons for blunt dissection?
- Escherichia coli
- anesthesia provider
- kitner (peanut)
- standard precautions
Q80. What degrees Celsius is the steam sterilization biological indicator incubated?
- Argon
- third
- 55-60
- laser
Q81. The outer layer of the intestine is the?
- insulin
- serosa
- Argon
- glottis
Q82. Which of the following routine preoperative laboratory studies would be ordered for premenopausal women with no history of hysterectomy?
- 270-276
- ear
- sclera
- HCG
Q83. The islets of Langerhans secrete?
- supine
- potassium
- direct
- insulin
Q84. The nasal sinus located between the nose and the orbits is the?
- ethmoid
- 10
- adaptic
- 85
Q85. For which procedure would Trendelenburg position provide optimal visualization?
- atherosclerosis
- hysterectomy
- Depo-Medrol
- sprilli
Q86. For which of the following procedures would a McBurney incision be indicated?
- inguinal
- hysterectomy
- appendectomy
- balanced
Q87. Which of the following actions would be a violation of aseptic technique?
- feet first, side rails up
- repositioning penetrating towel clip
- bony overgrowth of stapes
- acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest
Q88. Which of the following regulations states that blood and body fluids should be considered infectious?
- reverse trendelenburg
- nasolacrimal duct
- endotracheal intubation
- standard precautions
Q89. The minimum Fahrenheit temperature for sterilization to occur in a prevacuum steam sterilizer is?
- biological
- glottis
- potassium
- 270-276
Q90. Which of the following is a major source of distress for toddler and preschool age patients being transported to the operating room?
- incident report
- separation anxiety
- endotracheal intubation
- reverse trendelenburg
Q91. The vocal cords are located in the?
- formalin
- skeletal
- larynx
- flat
Q92. What incision is also known as a lower oblique?
- inguinal
- pfannenstiel
- mitochondria
- trauma
Q93. How often should surgical masks be changed?
- after each case
- Ampulla of Vater
- time, shielding, distance
- 10 minutes
Q94. To which portion of the colon is the appendix attached?
- vomer
- laser
- Argon
- cecum
Q95. Which of the following may require probing and dilating in pediatric patients with upper respiratory infections?
- notify surgeon
- surgically clean
- Escherichia coli
- nasolacrimal duct
Q96. The organ that is connected by a duct to the duodenum is the?
- flat
- pancreas
- cystocele
- cerebellum
Q97. What is the surgical position commonly used for thyroid and gallbladder surgery?
- endotracheal intubation
- anesthesia provider
- reverse trendelenburg
- surgically clean
Q98. What is the position most commonly used for mitral valve replacement?
- supine
- cystocele
- acute
- pterygium
Q99. Syndactyl refers to?
- webbed fingers
- surgically clean
- clostridium tetani
- pulmonary embolism
Q100. What is the minimum number of minutes to sterilize unwrapped metal instruments with lumens in the gravity displacement sterilizer at 270 degrees F?
- U drape
- incident report
- 10 minutes
- Hallux valgus
Q101. What is another name for the electrosurgical unit’s patient return electrode?
- Escherichia coli
- grounding pad
- Hallux valgus
- incident report
Q102. The space between the vocal cords is called the?
- glottis
- pfannenstiel
- adaptic
- potassium
Q103. Under what circumstances would it be appropriate to remove a patient’s identification bracelet?
- res ipsa loquitor (thing speaks for its self)
- patient marks with an “X” and witness verifies
- never until patient is discharged from facility
- acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest
Q104. What is the first step taken for an incorrect sponge count?
- surgically clean
- incident report
- lukewarm water
- notify surgeon
Q105. Which bacteria could be found in a penetrating wound caused by a rusty nail?
- cottingham punch
- clostridium tetani
- artificial active
- incident report
Q106. Which of the following terms means a prolapsed bladder causing a bulge in the anterior vaginal wall?
- cystocele
- trauma
- Argon
- parasitism
Q107. When using the warm cycle of the EtO sterilizer what is the minimum sterilization temperature in Fahrenheit?,
- 85
- 24
- 10
- acute
Q108. Which of the following is a commonly used preservative for tissue specimens?
- adaptic
- love
- formalin
- latrogenic
Q109. Which of the following tissues are cut using curved Mayo scissors?
- subluxation
- fascia
- acute
- pterygium
Q110. Which of the following identifiers must be verified by the patient or their ID bracelet prior to transporting a patient to the OR?
- 1 1/2 hours (90 minutes)
- name, date of birth, physician
- acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest
- feet first, side rails up
Q111. Medication used to dilate the pupil is called?
- mydriatics
- direct
- sprilli
- vomer
Q112. What size of Foley catheter is commonly used for adults?
- 16 Fr
- vomer
- laser
- Argon
Q113. Which of the following terms describes a hernia that occurs within Hesselbach’s triangle?
- direct
- adaptic
- Depo-Medrol
- flat
Q114. What postoperative complication is associated with total hip arthroplasty?
- pulmonary embolism
- artificial active
- cottingham punch
- endotracheal intubation
Q115. Which of the following is a mechanical method of hemostasis?
- mitochondria
- third
- ligature
- Argon
Q116. What position is most commonly used for neurosurgical procedures?
- cerebellum
- pressure
- supine
- inner
Q117. Which of the following is a nonadherent dressing?
- penrose
- love
- vomer
- adaptic
Q118. A properly performed surgical scrub renders the skin?
- lukewarm water
- surgically clean
- Hallux valgus
- anesthesia provider
Q119. The fibrous white layer that gives the eye its shape is the?
- pharynx
- inner
- sclera
- heparin
Q120. The cartilaginous nasal septum is anterior to which bone?
- third
- laser
- inner
- vomer
Q121. Which of the following monitors provides positive assurance of sterility?
- laser
- Argon
- inner
- biological
Q122. When would the anesthesia provider request cricoid pressure?
- endotracheal intubation
- anesthesia provider
- bacillus stearothermophilus
- clostridium perfringens
Q123. How many hours must the steam sterilization biological indicator incubate?
- 24
- 85
- sprilli
- 10
Q124. A brain tumor causing alteration of muscle tone voluntary muscle coordination, gait and balance would likely be located in the?
- sprilli
- subluxation
- pressure
- cerebellum
Q125. Which of the following is a type of passive drain?
- potassium
- penrose
- inner
- flat
Q126. The agent used to flush an artery to prevent clotting is?
- backtable
- subluxation
- love
- heparin
Q127. What condition is characterized by build up of fatty deposits such as cholesterol?
- Depo-Medrol
- alpha-chymotrypsin
- parasitism
- atherosclerosis
Q128. Which organelle is responsible for the production of energy?
- pressure
- pharynx
- pfannenstiel
- mitochondria
Q129. What is the medical term for a bunion?
- incident report
- Hallux valgus
- lukewarm water
- cottingham punch
Q130. A topical steroid used to reduce inflammation after eye surgery is?
- pfannenstiel
- bacillus
- pressure
- Depo-Medrol
Q131. Plaster rolls for casting should be submerged in which of the following?
- lukewarm water
- anesthesia provider
- incident report
- Escherichia coli
Q132. Which legal principle applies when the patient is given the wrong dose of the local anesthetic?
- acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest
- cottingham punch
- res ipsa loquitor (thing speaks for its self)
- patient marks with an “X” and witness verifies
Q133. How many hours must an item submerse in glutaraldehyde to sterilize?
- 24
- 85
- pharynx
- 10
Q134. What is the definition of otosclerosis?
- clostridium perfringens
- feet first, side rails up
- bony overgrowth of stapes
- bacillus stearothermophilus
Q135. Which organism is a normal resident flora of the intestinal tract?
- Escherichia coli
- cottingham punch
- artificial active
- anesthesia provider
Q136. Which thermal method of hemostasis utilizes intense focused light?,
- Argon
- acute
- laser
- inner
Q137. What type of anesthesia is a combination of inhalation and intravenous drugs?
- Argon
- latrogenic
- third
- balanced
Q138. Which of the following drapes is non fenestrated?
- artificial active
- anesthesia provider
- cottingham punch
- U drape
Q139. Which portion of the ear is affected by Meniere’s syndrome?
- Argon
- inner
- acute
- third
Q140. What type of disease is characterized by rapid onset and a rapid recovery?
- laser
- third
- acute
- Argon
Q141. Hyperkalemia is a high concentration of?
- backtable
- third
- potassium
- pressure
Q142. The most reliable method for determining the efficiency of moist heat sterilizers is the controlled use of biological indicators containing the organism?
- clostridium perfringens
- incident report
- artificial active
- bacillus stearothermophilus
Q143. How is the surgical informed consent signed if an adult patient is illiterate?
- bilateral fallopian tubes and ovaries, uterus
- acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest
- artificial active
- patient marks with an “X” and witness verifies
Q144. The enzyme used to soften the zonules of the lens before cataract surgery is?
- alpha-chymotrypsin
- hydrocelectomy
- pfannenstiel
- sprilli
Q145.The surgical pack utilized to create the sterile field should be opened on the?
- love
- backtable
- skeletal
- pterygium
Q146. A partially dislocated joint is called?
- transverse
- latrogenic
- pharynx
- subluxation
Q147. When perforated metal trays are placed on the shelves of the steam sterilizing cart they should be positioned?,
- flat
- love
- pressure
- 4
Q148. What is the recommended maximum time limit for a tourniquet to remain inflated on an adult lower extremity?
- acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest
- feet first, side rails up
- clostridium perfringens
- 1 1/2 hours (90 minutes)
Q149. What is the burn degree classification that involves the epidermis and subcutaneous tissue?
- cecum
- argon
- Argon
- third
Q150. Which of the following retractors is used for spinal nerve roots?
- flat
- love
- pressure
- Argon
Q151. What is the medical term for removal of the uterus?
- pressure
- hysterectomy
- skeletal
- pharynx
Q152. Which of the following is a curved transverse incision across the lower abdomen frequently used in gynecological surgery?
- sprilli
- pfannenstiel
- circulator
- pressure
Q153. What are spiral shaped bacteria called?
- pressure
- sprilli
- Argon
- latrogenic
Q154. Through which of the following do the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct empty?
- Ampulla of Vater
- artificial active
- time, shielding, distance
- hydrocelectomy
Q155. What is the name of the procedure for the excision of the tunica vaginalis?
- hydrocelectomy
- transverse
- pterygium
- circulator
Q156. What is the required minimum number of individuals to transfer an incapacitated patient from the OR table to the stretcher?
- trauma
- 4
- pressure
- Argon
Q157. Which of these conditions is characterized by a fleshy encroachment of conjunctiva onto the cornea?
- pterygium
- Argon
- trauma
- latrogenic
Q158. An injury a patient sustains as a result of the care given by a healthcare professional is called?
- pharynx
- trauma
- Argon
- latrogenic
Q159. Which of these instruments would be used during a keratoplasty?
- cottingham punch
- artificial active
- incident report
- anesthesia provider
Q160. Which structure has oral nasal, and laryngeal divisions?,
- pharynx
- skeletal
- transverse
- Argon
Q161. What direction should the stretcher be oriented when transporting a patient to the OR department?
- time, shielding, distance
- acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest
- clostridium perfringens
- feet first, side rails u
Q162. The most common cause of retinal detachment is?
- trauma
- Argon
- transverse
- skeletal
Q163. What is the term for a relationship that benefits one organism at the expense of another?
- circulator
- pressure
- parasitism
- bacillus
Q164. Which muscle type is striated and voluntary?
- skeletal
- bacillus
- Argon
- circulator
Q165. In addition to temperature time and moisture, what is the fourth factor that determines the outcome of the steam sterilization process?
- pressure
- Argon
- bacillus
- transverse
Q166. Which organism causes gas gangrene?
- anesthesia provider
- clostridium perfringens
- incident report
- artificial active
Q167. What type of acquired immunity is a vaccination?
- Argon
- anesthesia provider
- incident report
- artificial active
Q168. What type of drape would be used for a flank procedure?
- bacillus
- transverse
- Argon
- circulator
Q169. Chest rolls should span the distance bilaterally between which two anatomical structures?
- Argon
- circulator
- time, shielding, distance
- acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest
Q170. What are the three factors for reducing ionizing radiation exposure?
- incident report
- circulator
- patent ductus arteriosus
- time, shielding, distance
Q171. Which laser beam can travel through clear tissues without heating them?
- coude
- 55-60
- third
- Argon
Q172. Which of the following is a non sterile member of the surgical team?
- Myomectomy
- incident report
- circulator
- bacillus
Q173. Which term describes a rod shaped microorganism?
- commensalism
- ethmoid
- bacillus
- incus
Q174. Which surgical team member determines when the patient can be transported from the OR to the PACU?
- incident report
- anesthesia provider
- pulmonary embolism
- lukewarm water
Q175. What institutional document is completed when an adverse or unusual event takes place in the OR that may have legal consequences for the staff or patient?
- notify surgeon
- arthropod bites
- incident report
- nasolacrimal duct
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